Q1. Which Act is regarded as the first step toward centralized administration in British India?
A) Regulating Act, 1773
B) Charter Act, 1813
C) Pitt's India Act, 1784
D) Government of India Act, 1858
Answer: A) Regulating Act, 1773
Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first British parliamentary law to regulate the East India Company's administration in India. It centralized authority and created the office of the Governor-General of Bengal.
---
### Q2. Who became the first Governor-General of Bengal under the Regulating Act, 1773?
A) Lord Cornwallis
B) Warren Hastings
C) Lord Wellesley
D) Lord Hastings
**Answer:** B) Warren Hastings
**Explanation:** Warren Hastings became the first Governor-General of Bengal and exercised authority over the Presidencies of Madras and Bombay in specified matters.
---
### Q3. The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established under which Act?
A) Charter Act, 1813
B) Regulating Act, 1773
C) Pitt's India Act, 1784
D) Government of India Act, 1858
**Answer:** B) Regulating Act, 1773
**Explanation:** The Act established the Supreme Court at Fort William, Calcutta, in 1774 with one Chief Justice and three puisne judges.
---
### Q4. Pitt's India Act was passed in:
A) 1773
B) 1784
C) 1793
D) 1813
**Answer:** B) 1784
**Explanation:** Pitt's India Act introduced dual control by creating the Board of Control in Britain while the Court of Directors continued commercial functions.
---
### Q5. Which body was created under Pitt's India Act, 1784?
A) Constituent Assembly
B) Board of Control
C) Federal Court
D) Executive Council
**Answer:** B) Board of Control
**Explanation:** The Board of Control supervised the political affairs of the East India Company on behalf of the British Government.
---
### Q6. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the Company's monopoly over:
A) Trade with China only
B) Trade with India (except tea and China trade)
C) Tea trade only
D) Salt trade
**Answer:** B) Trade with India (except tea and China trade)
**Explanation:** Private British merchants were permitted to trade with India, while the Company's monopoly over tea and China trade continued.
---
### Q7. Which Charter Act made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India?
A) Charter Act, 1793
B) Charter Act, 1813
C) Charter Act, 1833
D) Charter Act, 1853
**Answer:** C) Charter Act, 1833
**Explanation:** The Charter Act of 1833 centralized administration by creating the office of the Governor-General of India.
---
### Q8. Who became the first Governor-General of India?
A) Warren Hastings
B) Lord William Bentinck
C) Lord Dalhousie
D) Lord Canning
**Answer:** B) Lord William Bentinck
**Explanation:** Lord William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India after the Charter Act of 1833.
---
### Q9. Which Charter Act introduced open competition for the Civil Services?
A) Charter Act, 1813
B) Charter Act, 1833
C) Charter Act, 1853
D) Government of India Act, 1858
**Answer:** C) Charter Act, 1853
**Explanation:** The Charter Act of 1853 separated legislative and executive functions and introduced competitive recruitment for the Civil Services.
---
### Q10. The Government of India Act, 1858 was enacted after:
A) Battle of Plassey
B) Revolt of 1857
C) Partition of Bengal
D) First World War
**Answer:** B) Revolt of 1857
**Explanation:** Following the Revolt of 1857, the British Crown assumed direct control over India from the East India Company.
---
### Q11. The Government of India Act, 1858 transferred power from:
A) British Parliament to the Governor-General
B) East India Company to the British Crown
C) Crown to Provincial Governments
D) Parliament to Local Bodies
**Answer:** B) East India Company to the British Crown
**Explanation:** The Act abolished Company rule and established direct Crown administration.
---
### Q12. The office of the Secretary of State for India was created by:
A) Charter Act, 1833
B) Charter Act, 1853
C) Government of India Act, 1858
D) Indian Councils Act, 1861
**Answer:** C) Government of India Act, 1858
**Explanation:** The Secretary of State for India became the principal authority responsible for Indian affairs in Britain.
---
### Q13. Which Act introduced the portfolio system in India?
A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
B) Government of India Act, 1858
C) Charter Act, 1833
D) Government of India Act, 1919
**Answer:** A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
**Explanation:** Lord Canning introduced the portfolio system, allowing council members to administer separate departments.
---
### Q14. The Indian Councils Act, 1861 is famous for:
A) Provincial Autonomy
B) Beginning of Representative Institutions
C) Dyarchy
D) Federal Court
**Answer:** B) Beginning of Representative Institutions
**Explanation:** It permitted the inclusion of Indians as nominated members in legislative councils.
---
### Q15. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 introduced:
A) Universal Adult Franchise
B) Indirect Election
C) Direct Election
D) Fundamental Rights
**Answer:** B) Indirect Election
**Explanation:** Though the term "election" was not officially used, members were effectively chosen through an indirect electoral process.
---
### Q16. Which Act is associated with the principle of election in legislative councils?
A) Indian Councils Act, 1892
B) Charter Act, 1833
C) Government of India Act, 1858
D) Charter Act, 1813
**Answer:** A) Indian Councils Act, 1892
**Explanation:** It marked the beginning of electoral representation, although elections remained limited and indirect.
---
### Q17. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 is popularly known as:
A) Minto-Morley Reforms
B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
C) Cripps Reforms
D) Wavell Plan
**Answer:** A) Minto-Morley Reforms
**Explanation:** Named after Lord Minto and John Morley, the Act expanded legislative councils and introduced communal representation.
---
### Q18. Which Act introduced Separate Electorates for Muslims?
A) Indian Councils Act, 1892
B) Indian Councils Act, 1909
C) Government of India Act, 1919
D) Government of India Act, 1935
**Answer:** B) Indian Councils Act, 1909
**Explanation:** Separate electorates allowed Muslim voters to elect Muslim representatives separately.
---
### Q19. The Government of India Act, 1919 is also known as:
A) Minto-Morley Reforms
B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
C) Simon Reforms
D) Cripps Proposals
**Answer:** B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
**Explanation:** It introduced constitutional reforms including dyarchy in the provinces.
---
### Q20. Dyarchy was introduced in:
A) Centre
B) Provinces
C) Districts
D) Municipalities
**Answer:** B) Provinces
**Explanation:** Provincial subjects were divided into Reserved and Transferred categories under the Government of India Act, 1919.
---
### Q21. Which Act established a bicameral legislature at the Centre?
A) Government of India Act, 1919
B) Government of India Act, 1858
C) Charter Act, 1833
D) Indian Councils Act, 1892
**Answer:** A) Government of India Act, 1919
**Explanation:** The Central Legislature consisted of the Legislative Assembly and the Council of State.
---
### Q22. The Simon Commission was appointed in:
A) 1919
B) 1927
C) 1930
D) 1935
**Answer:** B) 1927
**Explanation:** The Commission reviewed the working of the 1919 Act but contained no Indian members, leading to widespread protests.
---
### Q23. Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
A) Government of India Act, 1919
B) Government of India Act, 1935
C) Government of India Act, 1858
D) Indian Councils Act, 1909
**Answer:** B) Government of India Act, 1935
**Explanation:** Dyarchy in provinces was abolished and elected provincial governments received greater autonomy.
---
### Q24. The Federal Court of India was established under:
A) Government of India Act, 1935
B) Indian Independence Act, 1947
C) Charter Act, 1853
D) Government of India Act, 1919
**Answer:** A) Government of India Act, 1935
**Explanation:** The Federal Court was inaugurated in 1937 and served as the highest judicial authority in India before the Supreme Court.
---
### Q25. Which Act provided for the partition of British India into India and Pakistan?
A) Government of India Act, 1935
B) Indian Independence Act, 1947
C) Cabinet Mission Plan
D) Cripps Mission
**Answer:** B) Indian Independence Act, 1947
**Explanation:** The Indian Independence Act, 1947 created the two independent Dominions of India and Pakistan with effect from **15 August 1947**.
Excellent! We'll continue with **Volume 1 – Part 2 (Questions 26–50)**.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## Volume 1 – Part 2 (Questions 26–50)
**Topic:** Indian Independence Act, 1947 & Constituent Assembly
---
### Q26. The Indian Independence Act received Royal Assent on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 18 July 1947
C) 3 June 1947
D) 26 January 1950
**Answer:** **B) 18 July 1947**
**Explanation:** The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act on **18 July 1947**, paving the way for the creation of two independent Dominions.
---
### Q27. India became independent on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 January 1950
C) 9 December 1946
D) 18 July 1947
**Answer:** **A) 15 August 1947**
**Explanation:** India attained independence from British rule on **15 August 1947**.
---
### Q28. Which plan led to the partition of India?
A) Cripps Proposal
B) Cabinet Mission Plan
C) Mountbatten Plan
D) Simon Commission Report
**Answer:** **C) Mountbatten Plan**
**Explanation:** The **3 June 1947 Mountbatten Plan** proposed the partition of British India into India and Pakistan.
---
### Q29. Who was the last Viceroy of British India?
A) Lord Wavell
B) Lord Mountbatten
C) Lord Canning
D) Lord Curzon
**Answer:** **B) Lord Mountbatten**
**Explanation:** Lord Louis Mountbatten served as the last Viceroy before independence and the first Governor-General of independent India.
---
### Q30. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
A) C. Rajagopalachari
B) Lord Mountbatten
C) Lord Wavell
D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
**Answer:** **B) Lord Mountbatten**
**Explanation:** Lord Mountbatten continued as Governor-General of India until June 1948.
---
### Q31. Who was the first Indian Governor-General of independent India?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C) C. Rajagopalachari
D) Vallabhbhai Patel
**Answer:** **C) C. Rajagopalachari**
**Explanation:** C. Rajagopalachari was the only Indian to serve as Governor-General of India.
---
### Q32. The Constituent Assembly first met on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 9 December 1946
C) 26 November 1949
D) 26 January 1950
**Answer:** **B) 9 December 1946**
**Explanation:** The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on **9 December 1946**.
---
### Q33. Who was the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B) B. R. Ambedkar
C) Sachchidananda Sinha
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
**Answer:** **C) Sachchidananda Sinha**
**Explanation:** Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha served as the temporary President of the Assembly.
---
### Q34. Who became the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C) B. R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Patel
**Answer:** **B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad**
**Explanation:** Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on **11 December 1946**.
---
### Q35. Who was appointed Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly?
A) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
B) B. N. Rau
C) K. M. Munshi
D) T. T. Krishnamachari
**Answer:** **B) B. N. Rau**
**Explanation:** Sir Benegal Narsing Rau prepared the initial draft and advised the Assembly on constitutional matters.
---
### Q36. The Drafting Committee was formed on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 29 August 1947
C) 26 January 1950
D) 9 December 1946
**Answer:** **B) 29 August 1947**
**Explanation:** The Drafting Committee was entrusted with preparing the Draft Constitution.
---
### Q37. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
C) Sardar Patel
D) Rajendra Prasad
**Answer:** **B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar**
**Explanation:** Dr. B. R. Ambedkar is regarded as the principal architect of the Indian Constitution.
---
### Q38. How many members were originally in the Drafting Committee?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 9
D) 11
**Answer:** **B) 7**
**Explanation:** The Drafting Committee originally consisted of **seven members**.
---
### Q39. The Constituent Assembly was constituted under:
A) Indian Independence Act
B) Cabinet Mission Plan
C) Government of India Act, 1935
D) Cripps Mission
**Answer:** **B) Cabinet Mission Plan**
**Explanation:** The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed the formation of the Constituent Assembly.
---
### Q40. The original strength of the Constituent Assembly was:
A) 389
B) 299
C) 395
D) 545
**Answer:** **A) 389**
**Explanation:** Initially, the Assembly had **389 members** representing British India and the Princely States.
---
### Q41. After partition, the strength of the Constituent Assembly became:
A) 389
B) 299
C) 250
D) 324
**Answer:** **B) 299**
**Explanation:** Following partition, members from areas that became Pakistan ceased to be part of the Assembly.
---
### Q42. The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 November 1949
C) 26 January 1950
D) 24 January 1950
**Answer:** **B) 26 November 1949**
**Explanation:** The Constituent Assembly formally adopted the Constitution on **26 November 1949**.
---
### Q43. The Constitution came into force on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 November 1949
C) 24 January 1950
D) 26 January 1950
**Answer:** **D) 26 January 1950**
**Explanation:** This date is celebrated as **Republic Day** because the Constitution became fully operational on **26 January 1950**.
---
### Q44. Members signed the Constitution on:
A) 26 January 1950
B) 24 January 1950
C) 26 November 1949
D) 15 August 1947
**Answer:** **B) 24 January 1950**
**Explanation:** On 24 January 1950, members signed the Constitution in both English and Hindi.
---
### Q45. The Constitution originally contained:
A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 8 Schedules
B) 448 Articles and 12 Schedules
C) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
D) 470 Articles and 12 Schedules
**Answer:** **A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 8 Schedules**
**Explanation:** At its commencement, the Constitution comprised 395 Articles arranged in 22 Parts with 8 Schedules.
---
### Q46. The present Constitution contains:
A) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
B) About 470 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
C) 448 Articles and 10 Schedules
D) 300 Articles and 12 Schedules
**Answer:** **B) About 470 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules**
**Explanation:** Through numerous amendments, the Constitution has expanded to around **470 Articles**, **25 Parts**, and **12 Schedules**.
---
### Q47. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to frame the Constitution?
A) 1 year 6 months
B) 2 years 11 months 18 days
C) 3 years 6 months
D) 4 years
**Answer:** **B) 2 years 11 months 18 days**
**Explanation:** The Assembly worked from **9 December 1946 to 26 November 1949**.
---
### Q48. Approximately how many sessions of the Constituent Assembly were held?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
**Answer:** **C) 11**
**Explanation:** The Constituent Assembly met in **11 sessions** over nearly three years.
---
### Q49. Approximately how many days did the Constituent Assembly spend discussing the Constitution?
A) 100 days
B) 165 days
C) 250 days
D) 300 days
**Answer:** **B) 165 days**
**Explanation:** The Assembly devoted **165 sitting days** to debating and finalizing the Constitution.
---
### Q50. Which of the following is correctly called the "Father of the Indian Constitution"?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
**Answer:** **B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar**
**Explanation:** Dr. B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee and played the leading role in preparing the Constitution, earning him the title **"Father (or Chief Architect) of the Indian Constitution."**
Excellent! Let's continue with **Volume 1 – Part 3 (Questions 51–75)**.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## Volume 1 – Part 3 (Questions 51–75)
**Topics:** Sources of the Constitution, Preamble, Salient Features & Union and Territory
---
### Q51. Which country is the largest single source of the Indian Constitution?
A) United States
B) Canada
C) United Kingdom
D) Australia
**Answer:** **C) United Kingdom**
**Explanation:** A large number of constitutional provisions such as the parliamentary system, rule of law, cabinet government, and legislative procedures were borrowed from the British Constitution.
---
### Q52. The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from:
A) United Kingdom
B) United States of America
C) Ireland
D) Canada
**Answer:** **B) United States of America**
**Explanation:** Part III of the Indian Constitution draws inspiration from the U.S. Bill of Rights.
---
### Q53. Which country's Constitution inspired the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A) Australia
B) Ireland
C) Canada
D) France
**Answer:** **B) Ireland**
**Explanation:** The Directive Principles (Part IV) were inspired by the Constitution of Ireland.
---
### Q54. The Fundamental Duties were borrowed from:
A) Russia (Former USSR)
B) Germany
C) France
D) Japan
**Answer:** **A) Russia (Former USSR)**
**Explanation:** Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) and were inspired by the Constitution of the former Soviet Union.
---
### Q55. The idea of the Concurrent List was borrowed from:
A) Australia
B) Canada
C) United States
D) France
**Answer:** **A) Australia**
**Explanation:** Australia inspired the Concurrent List and the concept of joint sittings of Parliament.
---
### Q56. The idea of a strong Centre with a federal system was borrowed from:
A) Canada
B) United Kingdom
C) Switzerland
D) France
**Answer:** **A) Canada**
**Explanation:** India adopted a federal system with a strong central government, similar to Canada's constitutional framework.
---
### Q57. Which country inspired the procedure for Constitutional Amendment?
A) South Africa
B) Ireland
C) Japan
D) United States
**Answer:** **A) South Africa**
**Explanation:** The amendment procedure and election of members to the Rajya Sabha were inspired by South Africa.
---
### Q58. Which country's Constitution inspired the ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity?
A) Germany
B) France
C) Russia
D) Ireland
**Answer:** **B) France**
**Explanation:** These ideals originated from the French Revolution and are reflected in the Preamble.
---
### Q59. The Preamble was inspired by:
A) Nehru's Objectives Resolution
B) Government of India Act, 1935
C) Simon Commission Report
D) Cripps Proposal
**Answer:** **A) Nehru's Objectives Resolution**
**Explanation:** Jawaharlal Nehru presented the Objectives Resolution in 1946, which became the philosophical foundation of the Preamble.
---
### Q60. The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble by:
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 42nd Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity."
---
### Q61. Which word was also added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment?
A) Sovereignty
B) Integrity
C) Republic
D) Democracy
**Answer:** **B) Integrity**
**Explanation:** The phrase changed from "Unity of the Nation" to "Unity and Integrity of the Nation."
---
### Q62. The Preamble declares India to be:
A) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
B) Sovereign Democratic Federation
C) Federal Socialist Republic
D) Democratic Monarchy
**Answer:** **A) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic**
**Explanation:** These words define the basic nature of the Indian State.
---
### Q63. Which of the following is **NOT** mentioned in the Preamble?
A) Liberty
B) Equality
C) Justice
D) Adult Suffrage
**Answer:** **D) Adult Suffrage**
**Explanation:** Adult suffrage is provided in the Constitution but is not mentioned in the Preamble.
---
### Q64. Which case held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?
A) Golaknath Case
B) Kesavananda Bharati Case
C) Minerva Mills Case
D) Shankari Prasad Case
**Answer:** **B) Kesavananda Bharati Case**
**Explanation:** In 1973, the Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended without altering the Basic Structure.
---
### Q65. The Constitution of India establishes:
A) Unitary Government
B) Federal System with Unitary Features
C) Presidential System
D) Confederation
**Answer:** **B) Federal System with Unitary Features**
**Explanation:** India combines federalism with a strong Centre, making it unique among federal constitutions.
---
### Q66. Which feature distinguishes the Indian Constitution as the lengthiest written Constitution?
A) Numerous amendments only
B) Detailed administrative provisions and diversity of the country
C) Large number of judges
D) Presidential system
**Answer:** **B) Detailed administrative provisions and diversity of the country**
**Explanation:** The Constitution contains elaborate provisions to address India's vast geographical, social, and administrative diversity.
---
### Q67. Which of the following is a feature of the Indian Constitution?
A) Single Citizenship
B) Dual Citizenship
C) State Citizenship only
D) Commonwealth Citizenship
**Answer:** **A) Single Citizenship**
**Explanation:** Unlike countries such as the United States, India provides only one citizenship for all its citizens.
---
### Q68. India is described in Article 1 as:
A) A Federation of States
B) A Union of States
C) A Confederation of States
D) A Republic of Provinces
**Answer:** **B) A Union of States**
**Explanation:** Article 1 declares, "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States."
---
### Q69. Which Article deals with the name and territory of India?
A) Article 1
B) Article 2
C) Article 3
D) Article 4
**Answer:** **A) Article 1**
**Explanation:** Article 1 specifies the name of the country and its territorial composition.
---
### Q70. Parliament has the power to create new States under:
A) Article 1
B) Article 2
C) Article 3
D) Article 4
**Answer:** **C) Article 3**
**Explanation:** Parliament may form new States, alter boundaries, or change the names of existing States by law.
---
### Q71. Which Article empowers Parliament to admit or establish new States?
A) Article 2
B) Article 3
C) Article 4
D) Article 5
**Answer:** **A) Article 2**
**Explanation:** Article 2 enables Parliament to admit or establish new States into the Union.
---
### Q72. Which Article states that laws made under Articles 2 and 3 are not Constitutional Amendments?
A) Article 2
B) Article 3
C) Article 4
D) Article 5
**Answer:** **C) Article 4**
**Explanation:** Article 4 clarifies that such laws are ordinary legislation and do not require the amendment procedure under Article 368.
---
### Q73. The First Schedule of the Constitution contains:
A) Fundamental Rights
B) List of States and Union Territories
C) Languages
D) Oaths and Affirmations
**Answer:** **B) List of States and Union Territories**
**Explanation:** The First Schedule specifies the names of States, Union Territories, and their territorial extent.
---
### Q74. Which constitutional feature reflects India's democratic nature?
A) Hereditary Monarchy
B) Universal Adult Suffrage
C) Separate Electorates
D) Property Qualification for Voting
**Answer:** **B) Universal Adult Suffrage**
**Explanation:** Every citizen aged 18 years or above (subject to legal qualifications) has the right to vote, ensuring democratic participation.
---
### Q75. Which of the following is **NOT** a basic feature recognized by the Supreme Court under the Basic Structure Doctrine?
A) Rule of Law
B) Judicial Review
C) Parliamentary Democracy
D) Abolition of Fundamental Rights
**Answer:** **D) Abolition of Fundamental Rights**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court has consistently held that core constitutional values—such as the Rule of Law, Judicial Review, and Parliamentary Democracy—form part of the Basic Structure and cannot be destroyed through constitutional amendments.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 1 – Part 4 (Questions 76–100)**
**Topics:** Citizenship, Fundamental Rights (Introduction), Constitutional Remedies, Writs & Important Constitutional Facts
---
### Q76. Citizenship provisions are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
A) Part I
B) Part II
C) Part III
D) Part IV
**Answer:** **B) Part II**
**Explanation:** Part II (Articles 5–11) deals with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
---
### Q77. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution is covered under Articles:
A) 1–4
B) 5–11
C) 12–35
D) 36–51
**Answer:** **B) 5–11**
**Explanation:** Articles 5 to 11 define who became citizens of India on 26 January 1950.
---
### Q78. Which Article empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship by law?
A) Article 5
B) Article 8
C) Article 11
D) Article 14
**Answer:** **C) Article 11**
**Explanation:** Article 11 authorizes Parliament to enact laws relating to acquisition and termination of citizenship, leading to the enactment of the Citizenship Act, 1955.
---
### Q79. The Citizenship Act was enacted in:
A) 1950
B) 1951
C) 1955
D) 1976
**Answer:** **C) 1955**
**Explanation:** The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides detailed provisions regarding acquisition, renunciation, termination, and deprivation of citizenship.
---
### Q80. India follows which model of citizenship?
A) Dual Citizenship
B) Single Citizenship
C) Commonwealth Citizenship only
D) State Citizenship
**Answer:** **B) Single Citizenship**
**Explanation:** Every Indian citizen enjoys a single citizenship irrespective of the State in which they reside.
---
### Q81. Fundamental Rights are contained in:
A) Part II
B) Part III
C) Part IV
D) Part IVA
**Answer:** **B) Part III**
**Explanation:** Part III (Articles 12–35) guarantees Fundamental Rights to individuals.
---
### Q82. Fundamental Rights are inspired primarily by the:
A) British Constitution
B) U.S. Bill of Rights
C) Irish Constitution
D) Canadian Constitution
**Answer:** **B) U.S. Bill of Rights**
**Explanation:** The Indian Constitution adopted the concept of enforceable Fundamental Rights from the United States Constitution.
---
### Q83. Which Article defines the term "State" for Fundamental Rights?
A) Article 11
B) Article 12
C) Article 13
D) Article 14
**Answer:** **B) Article 12**
**Explanation:** Article 12 defines "State" to include the Government, Parliament, State Legislatures, local authorities, and other authorities within India.
---
### Q84. Which Article declares laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void?
A) Article 12
B) Article 13
C) Article 14
D) Article 15
**Answer:** **B) Article 13**
**Explanation:** Article 13 ensures that any law violating Fundamental Rights is void to the extent of such inconsistency.
---
### Q85. Which Article guarantees Equality before Law?
A) Article 13
B) Article 14
C) Article 15
D) Article 16
**Answer:** **B) Article 14**
**Explanation:** Article 14 provides equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
---
### Q86. Which Article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
A) Article 14
B) Article 15
C) Article 16
D) Article 17
**Answer:** **B) Article 15**
**Explanation:** Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the State on specified grounds.
---
### Q87. Equality of opportunity in public employment is guaranteed under:
A) Article 15
B) Article 16
C) Article 17
D) Article 18
**Answer:** **B) Article 16**
**Explanation:** Article 16 ensures equal opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment.
---
### Q88. Abolition of Untouchability is provided under:
A) Article 16
B) Article 17
C) Article 18
D) Article 19
**Answer:** **B) Article 17**
**Explanation:** Article 17 abolishes untouchability in all forms and makes its practice punishable by law.
---
### Q89. Which Article abolishes titles?
A) Article 17
B) Article 18
C) Article 19
D) Article 20
**Answer:** **B) Article 18**
**Explanation:** Article 18 abolishes hereditary and honorary titles (except military and academic distinctions).
---
### Q90. The Right to Freedom is covered under Articles:
A) 14–18
B) 19–22
C) 23–24
D) 25–28
**Answer:** **B) 19–22**
**Explanation:** These Articles guarantee freedoms such as speech, movement, association, residence, profession, and protections in criminal matters.
---
### Q91. Which Article guarantees Freedom of Speech and Expression?
A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 20
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
**Answer:** **A) Article 19(1)(a)**
**Explanation:** Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech and expression, subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2).
---
### Q92. Protection in respect of conviction for offences is guaranteed under:
A) Article 19
B) Article 20
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
**Answer:** **B) Article 20**
**Explanation:** Article 20 protects against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
---
### Q93. Which Article guarantees Protection of Life and Personal Liberty?
A) Article 19
B) Article 20
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
**Answer:** **C) Article 21**
**Explanation:** Article 21 states that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
---
### Q94. Which Article provides safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention?
A) Article 20
B) Article 21
C) Article 22
D) Article 23
**Answer:** **C) Article 22**
**Explanation:** Article 22 grants procedural safeguards to persons arrested or detained.
---
### Q95. Which Fundamental Right is known as the "Heart and Soul of the Constitution" according to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
A) Right to Equality
B) Right to Constitutional Remedies
C) Right to Freedom
D) Right to Education
**Answer:** **B) Right to Constitutional Remedies**
**Explanation:** Dr. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the "Heart and Soul of the Constitution" because it enables citizens to enforce their Fundamental Rights.
---
### Q96. Which Article guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
A) Article 31
B) Article 32
C) Article 33
D) Article 34
**Answer:** **B) Article 32**
**Explanation:** Article 32 empowers individuals to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
---
### Q97. Which writ commands a public authority to perform a public duty?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Mandamus
C) Certiorari
D) Quo Warranto
**Answer:** **B) Mandamus**
**Explanation:** Mandamus directs a public authority or official to perform a legal duty that has not been fulfilled.
---
### Q98. Which writ literally means "You may have the body"?
A) Mandamus
B) Habeas Corpus
C) Prohibition
D) Certiorari
**Answer:** **B) Habeas Corpus**
**Explanation:** Habeas Corpus protects individual liberty by requiring that a detained person be brought before the court to examine the legality of the detention.
---
### Q99. Which writ is issued to prevent a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Mandamus
C) Prohibition
D) Quo Warranto
**Answer:** **C) Prohibition**
**Explanation:** A writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court to stop a lower court or tribunal from acting beyond its jurisdiction.
---
### Q100. Which writ challenges the legal authority of a person holding a public office?
A) Certiorari
B) Quo Warranto
C) Habeas Corpus
D) Mandamus
**Answer:** **B) Quo Warranto**
**Explanation:** Quo Warranto ("by what authority") is issued to determine whether a person is legally entitled to hold a public office.
Excellent. We'll continue with **Volume 2**.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 2 – Part 1 (Questions 101–125)**
**Topic:** Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
---
### Q101. Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part IVA
D) Part V
**Answer:** **B) Part IV**
**Explanation:** Part IV (Articles 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy, which guide the State in governance.
---
### Q102. The Directive Principles are contained in Articles:
A) 12–35
B) 36–51
C) 52–78
D) 79–122
**Answer:** **B) Articles 36–51**
**Explanation:** These Articles lay down socio-economic and political goals for establishing a welfare state.
---
### Q103. The Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from the Constitution of:
A) United States
B) Ireland
C) Canada
D) Australia
**Answer:** **B) Ireland**
**Explanation:** India adopted the DPSPs from the Constitution of Ireland, which had itself drawn inspiration from the Spanish Constitution.
---
### Q104. Which Article defines the term "State" for the purposes of DPSPs?
A) Article 12
B) Article 36
C) Article 37
D) Article 38
**Answer:** **B) Article 36**
**Explanation:** Article 36 adopts the same definition of "State" as provided in Article 12.
---
### Q105. Which Article states that Directive Principles are **not enforceable by any court**?
A) Article 35
B) Article 37
C) Article 38
D) Article 39
**Answer:** **B) Article 37**
**Explanation:** Article 37 declares that DPSPs are non-justiciable but are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country.
---
### Q106. The main objective of the Directive Principles is to establish a:
A) Police State
B) Welfare State
C) Socialist Monarchy
D) Military State
**Answer:** **B) Welfare State**
**Explanation:** DPSPs aim to promote social, economic, and political justice to establish a welfare state.
---
### Q107. Which Article directs the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order based on justice?
A) Article 38
B) Article 39
C) Article 40
D) Article 41
**Answer:** **A) Article 38**
**Explanation:** Article 38 requires the State to strive to promote the welfare of the people through social, economic, and political justice.
---
### Q108. Which Article directs the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities?
A) Article 39A
B) Article 38(2)
C) Article 41
D) Article 42
**Answer:** **B) Article 38(2)**
**Explanation:** Article 38(2) specifically emphasizes reducing inequalities among individuals and groups.
---
### Q109. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is provided under:
A) Article 38
B) Article 39(d)
C) Article 42
D) Article 43
**Answer:** **B) Article 39(d)**
**Explanation:** Article 39(d) directs the State to ensure equal pay for equal work regardless of gender.
---
### Q110. Which Article directs the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources are distributed to serve the common good?
A) Article 39(b)
B) Article 40
C) Article 41
D) Article 43
**Answer:** **A) Article 39(b)**
**Explanation:** This provision seeks equitable distribution of material resources for the benefit of society.
---
### Q111. Which Article directs the State to prevent concentration of wealth?
A) Article 39(c)
B) Article 40
C) Article 43A
D) Article 44
**Answer:** **A) Article 39(c)**
**Explanation:** The objective is to avoid concentration of wealth and means of production in a few hands.
---
### Q112. Which Article provides for **free legal aid**?
A) Article 39A
B) Article 41
C) Article 42
D) Article 43
**Answer:** **A) Article 39A**
**Explanation:** Added by the 42nd Amendment, Article 39A promotes equal justice and free legal aid.
---
### Q113. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 39A?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 42nd Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added Article 39A.
---
### Q114. Which Article directs the State to organize Village Panchayats?
A) Article 39
B) Article 40
C) Article 41
D) Article 43
**Answer:** **B) Article 40**
**Explanation:** Article 40 forms the constitutional basis for Panchayati Raj Institutions.
---
### Q115. Which Article provides the Right to Work, Education, and Public Assistance in certain cases?
A) Article 40
B) Article 41
C) Article 42
D) Article 45
**Answer:** **B) Article 41**
**Explanation:** Article 41 directs the State to provide these benefits within its economic capacity.
---
### Q116. Which Article provides for **just and humane conditions of work** and **maternity relief**?
A) Article 41
B) Article 42
C) Article 43
D) Article 44
**Answer:** **B) Article 42**
**Explanation:** Article 42 emphasizes humane working conditions and maternity benefits.
---
### Q117. Living wages for workers are provided under:
A) Article 43
B) Article 44
C) Article 45
D) Article 46
**Answer:** **A) Article 43**
**Explanation:** The State should ensure living wages, decent working conditions, and a reasonable standard of life.
---
### Q118. Participation of workers in the management of industries is provided under:
A) Article 43A
B) Article 44
C) Article 45
D) Article 47
**Answer:** **A) Article 43A**
**Explanation:** Article 43A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment to encourage workers' participation in industrial management.
---
### Q119. Which Article directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code?
A) Article 43A
B) Article 44
C) Article 45
D) Article 46
**Answer:** **B) Article 44**
**Explanation:** Article 44 aims to establish a Uniform Civil Code applicable to all citizens.
---
### Q120. Which Article originally provided for **free and compulsory education up to the age of 14 years**?
A) Article 21A
B) Article 45
C) Article 46
D) Article 47
**Answer:** **B) Article 45**
**Explanation:** Originally, Article 45 directed the State to provide free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years. After the 86th Amendment, its focus shifted to early childhood care and education.
---
### Q121. Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and weaker sections is provided under:
A) Article 46
B) Article 47
C) Article 48
D) Article 49
**Answer:** **A) Article 46**
**Explanation:** Article 46 directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of weaker sections and protect them from exploitation.
---
### Q122. Which Article directs the State to improve public health and nutrition?
A) Article 46
B) Article 47
C) Article 48
D) Article 49
**Answer:** **B) Article 47**
**Explanation:** Article 47 makes improvement of public health and nutrition a primary duty of the State.
---
### Q123. Which Article directs the State to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern lines?
A) Article 47
B) Article 48
C) Article 48A
D) Article 49
**Answer:** **B) Article 48**
**Explanation:** Article 48 promotes scientific agriculture and animal husbandry and includes provisions relating to the preservation of cattle.
---
### Q124. Protection and improvement of the environment is provided under:
A) Article 48A
B) Article 49
C) Article 50
D) Article 51
**Answer:** **A) Article 48A**
**Explanation:** Inserted by the 42nd Amendment, Article 48A directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
---
### Q125. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 48A?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 42nd Amendment**
**Explanation:** The **42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976** introduced Article 48A, emphasizing environmental protection as a Directive Principle.
Great! We'll continue with **Volume 2 – Part 2 (Questions 126–150).**
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 2 – Part 2 (Questions 126–150)**
**Topics:** Directive Principles of State Policy (Continued), Fundamental Duties & Relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs
---
### Q126. Which Article directs the State to protect monuments and places of national importance?
A) Article 48A
B) Article 49
C) Article 50
D) Article 51
**Answer:** **B) Article 49**
**Explanation:** Article 49 directs the State to protect monuments, places, and objects of artistic or historic importance declared by Parliament to be of national importance.
---
### Q127. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is provided under:
A) Article 49
B) Article 50
C) Article 51
D) Article 52
**Answer:** **B) Article 50**
**Explanation:** Article 50 seeks to ensure the independence of the judiciary by separating it from the executive in public services.
---
### Q128. Promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in:
A) Article 49
B) Article 50
C) Article 51
D) Article 52
**Answer:** **C) Article 51**
**Explanation:** Article 51 encourages India to promote international peace, maintain just relations among nations, and respect international law.
---
### Q129. Which of the following is **NOT** a Directive Principle?
A) Promotion of international peace
B) Uniform Civil Code
C) Equal pay for equal work
D) Freedom of Speech
**Answer:** **D) Freedom of Speech**
**Explanation:** Freedom of Speech is a **Fundamental Right** under Article 19, not a Directive Principle.
---
### Q130. Directive Principles are:
A) Legally enforceable
B) Morally and politically enforceable only
C) Enforceable by the Supreme Court only
D) Enforceable by Parliament only
**Answer:** **B) Morally and politically enforceable only**
**Explanation:** DPSPs are non-justiciable but serve as guiding principles for governance.
---
### Q131. Fundamental Duties are contained in:
A) Part III
B) Part IVA
C) Part IV
D) Part V
**Answer:** **B) Part IVA**
**Explanation:** Part IVA of the Constitution contains the Fundamental Duties of citizens.
---
### Q132. Fundamental Duties were added by which Constitutional Amendment?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 42nd Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Part IVA containing Fundamental Duties.
---
### Q133. Fundamental Duties are contained in:
A) Article 48A
B) Article 51
C) Article 51A
D) Article 52
**Answer:** **C) Article 51A**
**Explanation:** Article 51A lists the Fundamental Duties of every citizen.
---
### Q134. The idea of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from:
A) United States
B) Canada
C) Former USSR (Russia)
D) Australia
**Answer:** **C) Former USSR (Russia)**
**Explanation:** India adopted the concept of Fundamental Duties from the Constitution of the former Soviet Union.
---
### Q135. Originally, the Constitution contained how many Fundamental Duties?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
**Answer:** **B) 10**
**Explanation:** Ten Fundamental Duties were added in 1976.
---
### Q136. The present number of Fundamental Duties is:
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
**Answer:** **B) 11**
**Explanation:** The **86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002** inserted the eleventh duty relating to children's education.
---
### Q137. The duty of parents or guardians to provide education to children aged 6–14 years was inserted by:
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 86th Amendment
D) 97th Amendment
**Answer:** **C) 86th Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 51A(k).
---
### Q138. Which Fundamental Duty requires citizens to respect the Constitution and the National Flag?
A) Article 51A(a)
B) Article 51A(b)
C) Article 51A(c)
D) Article 51A(d)
**Answer:** **A) Article 51A(a)**
**Explanation:** Citizens must abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and National Anthem.
---
### Q139. To cherish the ideals of the freedom struggle is provided under:
A) Article 51A(a)
B) Article 51A(b)
C) Article 51A(c)
D) Article 51A(d)
**Answer:** **B) Article 51A(b)**
**Explanation:** Citizens should follow the noble ideals that inspired India's freedom movement.
---
### Q140. Which Fundamental Duty requires citizens to uphold the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India?
A) Article 51A(a)
B) Article 51A(c)
C) Article 51A(e)
D) Article 51A(f)
**Answer:** **B) Article 51A(c)**
**Explanation:** Every citizen must protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of the nation.
---
### Q141. Which duty requires citizens to defend the country and render national service when called upon?
A) Article 51A(d)
B) Article 51A(e)
C) Article 51A(f)
D) Article 51A(g)
**Answer:** **A) Article 51A(d)**
**Explanation:** Citizens have a duty to defend India whenever required by law.
---
### Q142. Promotion of harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood is mentioned in:
A) Article 51A(e)
B) Article 51A(f)
C) Article 51A(g)
D) Article 51A(h)
**Answer:** **A) Article 51A(e)**
**Explanation:** This duty emphasizes unity beyond religious, linguistic, regional, and sectional diversities.
---
### Q143. Protection and improvement of the natural environment is a:
A) Fundamental Right only
B) Directive Principle only
C) Fundamental Duty also
D) Legal Right only
**Answer:** **C) Fundamental Duty also**
**Explanation:** Article 51A(g) requires citizens to protect forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife, and the natural environment.
---
### Q144. Which duty encourages the development of scientific temper and humanism?
A) Article 51A(f)
B) Article 51A(g)
C) Article 51A(h)
D) Article 51A(j)
**Answer:** **C) Article 51A(h)**
**Explanation:** Citizens should cultivate scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
---
### Q145. Which Fundamental Duty directs citizens to safeguard public property?
A) Article 51A(i)
B) Article 51A(j)
C) Article 51A(k)
D) Article 51A(h)
**Answer:** **A) Article 51A(i)**
**Explanation:** Citizens must protect public property and abjure violence.
---
### Q146. Which Fundamental Duty encourages striving for excellence in all spheres?
A) Article 51A(h)
B) Article 51A(i)
C) Article 51A(j)
D) Article 51A(k)
**Answer:** **C) Article 51A(j)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution encourages citizens to continuously strive for excellence so that the nation achieves higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
---
### Q147. Fundamental Duties are:
A) Justiciable
B) Non-justiciable
C) Enforceable only during Emergency
D) Enforceable by State Governments only
**Answer:** **B) Non-justiciable**
**Explanation:** Like the Directive Principles, Fundamental Duties cannot ordinarily be enforced through courts, although legislation may impose penalties for violating certain duties.
---
### Q148. Which case established the doctrine of the Basic Structure of the Constitution?
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
D) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951)
**Answer:** **B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court held that while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot alter or destroy its Basic Structure.
---
### Q149. Which judgment emphasized the harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
A) A.K. Gopalan Case
B) Minerva Mills Case (1980)
C) Berubari Case
D) Champakam Dorairajan Case
**Answer:** **B) Minerva Mills Case (1980)**
**Explanation:** The Court ruled that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary and that a balance between them is part of the Constitution's Basic Structure.
---
### Q150. Which statement best describes the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
A) Directive Principles override Fundamental Rights.
B) Fundamental Rights override Directive Principles in every situation.
C) Both are complementary and should be harmoniously interpreted.
D) They are unrelated constitutional provisions.
**Answer:** **C) Both are complementary and should be harmoniously interpreted.**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court has consistently interpreted Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as complementary components of the Constitution. Together, they help achieve the goals of justice, liberty, equality, and welfare envisioned by the Constitution.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 2 – Part 3 (Questions 151–175)**
**Topic:** Union Executive – President of India (Articles 52–62, 72, 74, 75 & Related Provisions)
---
### Q151. Which Part of the Constitution deals with the Union Executive?
A) Part IV
B) Part V
C) Part VI
D) Part VII
**Answer:** **B) Part V**
**Explanation:** Part V (Articles 52–151) deals with the Union Government, including the President, Vice-President, Council of Ministers, Parliament, Attorney General, and the Union Judiciary.
---
### Q152. Which Article provides that there shall be a President of India?
A) Article 51
B) Article 52
C) Article 53
D) Article 54
**Answer:** **B) Article 52**
**Explanation:** Article 52 simply states that there shall be a President of India.
---
### Q153. The executive power of the Union is vested in the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Parliament
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) President**
**Explanation:** Under Article 53, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President, who exercises it in accordance with the Constitution.
---
### Q154. The President of India is elected by:
A) Members of Lok Sabha only
B) Members of Parliament only
C) An Electoral College consisting of elected MPs and elected MLAs of States and certain Union Territories
D) The people directly
**Answer:** **C) An Electoral College consisting of elected MPs and elected MLAs of States and certain Union Territories**
**Explanation:** Under Article 54, the Electoral College comprises elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
---
### Q155. Which of the following does **NOT** participate in the election of the President?
A) Elected Members of Lok Sabha
B) Elected Members of Rajya Sabha
C) Elected Members of State Legislative Assemblies
D) Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha
**Answer:** **D) Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha**
**Explanation:** Nominated members of Parliament and State Legislative Councils do not participate in the Presidential election.
---
### Q156. The election of the President is conducted according to:
A) First-Past-the-Post System
B) Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote by secret ballot
C) Open Ballot System
D) Direct Popular Vote
**Answer:** **B) Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote by secret ballot**
**Explanation:** Article 55 prescribes this method to ensure uniform representation of States.
---
### Q157. The term of office of the President is:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Seven years
**Answer:** **B) Five years**
**Explanation:** Under Article 56, the President holds office for a term of five years but continues until a successor assumes office.
---
### Q158. A person seeking election as President must have completed the age of:
A) 30 years
B) 35 years
C) 40 years
D) 45 years
**Answer:** **B) 35 years**
**Explanation:** Article 58 requires a candidate to be at least 35 years of age.
---
### Q159. Which of the following is **NOT** a qualification for the office of President?
A) Citizen of India
B) At least 35 years of age
C) Qualified to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha
D) Must be a sitting Member of Parliament
**Answer:** **D) Must be a sitting Member of Parliament**
**Explanation:** If an MP is elected President, they vacate their parliamentary seat upon entering office.
---
### Q160. The President takes the oath before the:
A) Prime Minister
B) Chief Justice of India
C) Vice-President
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
**Answer:** **B) Chief Justice of India**
**Explanation:** Under Article 60, the oath is administered by the Chief Justice of India or, in their absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court available.
---
### Q161. The President may resign by addressing the resignation to the:
A) Prime Minister
B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) Vice-President
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **C) Vice-President**
**Explanation:** Article 56 provides that the President resigns by writing under their hand addressed to the Vice-President.
---
### Q162. A vacancy in the office of President must be filled within:
A) Three months
B) Six months
C) Nine months
D) One year
**Answer:** **B) Six months**
**Explanation:** Article 62 requires that an election to fill a vacancy be completed within six months.
---
### Q163. Disputes regarding the election of the President are decided by the:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court of India
D) President himself
**Answer:** **C) Supreme Court of India**
**Explanation:** Article 71 provides that all doubts and disputes arising from the Presidential election are decided by the Supreme Court.
---
### Q164. The President can be removed from office by:
A) Vote of no confidence
B) Impeachment for violation of the Constitution
C) Resolution of the Cabinet
D) Supreme Court order
**Answer:** **B) Impeachment for violation of the Constitution**
**Explanation:** The Constitution provides impeachment as the only method of removing the President before the expiry of the term.
---
### Q165. Which Article deals with the impeachment of the President?
A) Article 60
B) Article 61
C) Article 62
D) Article 63
**Answer:** **B) Article 61**
**Explanation:** Article 61 lays down the detailed procedure for impeachment.
---
### Q166. An impeachment charge against the President may originate in:
A) Lok Sabha only
B) Rajya Sabha only
C) Either House of Parliament
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **C) Either House of Parliament**
**Explanation:** Either House can initiate impeachment proceedings, subject to the prescribed majority requirements.
---
### Q167. The President acts on the aid and advice of the:
A) Chief Justice of India
B) Prime Minister acting alone
C) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
D) Parliament
**Answer:** **C) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister**
**Explanation:** Article 74 requires the President to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, subject to the Constitution.
---
### Q168. Which Constitutional Amendment made the President bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 42nd Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 42nd Amendment clarified that the President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers. The 44th Amendment later allowed the President to require the Council to reconsider its advice once.
---
### Q169. The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice under the:
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
**Answer:** **C) 44th Amendment**
**Explanation:** After reconsideration, the President is constitutionally bound to act according to the advice tendered.
---
### Q170. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India is the:
A) Prime Minister
B) Defence Minister
C) President of India
D) Chief of Defence Staff
**Answer:** **C) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces, while operational control is exercised through the elected government.
---
### Q171. The power of the President to grant pardons is provided under:
A) Article 70
B) Article 71
C) Article 72
D) Article 73
**Answer:** **C) Article 72**
**Explanation:** Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, suspend, remit, or commute certain sentences.
---
### Q172. Which of the following is **NOT** a form of clemency available to the President under Article 72?
A) Pardon
B) Reprieve
C) Remission
D) Judicial Review
**Answer:** **D) Judicial Review**
**Explanation:** Judicial Review is a constitutional power of the judiciary, not a form of executive clemency.
---
### Q173. Which one of the following is an Executive Power of the President?
A) Appointment of the Prime Minister
B) Passing the Union Budget
C) Conducting General Elections
D) Deciding Election Petitions
**Answer:** **A) Appointment of the Prime Minister**
**Explanation:** The President appoints the Prime Minister and, on the Prime Minister's advice, appoints other Ministers.
---
### Q174. Which one of the following is a Legislative Power of the President?
A) Appointment of Governors
B) Summoning and proroguing Parliament
C) Appointment of the Chief Justice of India
D) Appointment of the Attorney General
**Answer:** **B) Summoning and proroguing Parliament**
**Explanation:** Under the Constitution, the President summons, prorogues, and may dissolve the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q175. Which statement best describes the constitutional position of the President of India?
A) The President is the real executive.
B) The President is a nominal executive who ordinarily acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
C) The President is independent of the Council of Ministers.
D) The President exercises executive power without constitutional limitations.
**Answer:** **B) The President is a nominal executive who ordinarily acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.**
**Explanation:** India follows the parliamentary system. Although the executive power is formally vested in the President, it is ordinarily exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 2 – Part 4 (Questions 176–200)**
**Topics:** Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, Attorney General of India & Cabinet System
---
### Q176. Which Article provides that there shall be a Vice-President of India?
A) Article 62
B) Article 63
C) Article 64
D) Article 65
**Answer:** **B) Article 63**
**Explanation:** Article 63 states that there shall be a Vice-President of India.
---
### Q177. The Vice-President of India is elected by:
A) Elected Members of Parliament only
B) Members of both Houses of Parliament (elected and nominated) through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and secret ballot
C) Members of the Lok Sabha only
D) Members of the State Legislative Assemblies
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Unlike the President's election, **both elected and nominated members of Parliament** participate in the election of the Vice-President. State legislators do not.
---
### Q178. The Vice-President is elected for a term of:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Until the age of 65
**Answer:** **B) Five years**
**Explanation:** Under Article 67, the Vice-President holds office for five years but continues until a successor assumes office.
---
### Q179. The Vice-President is the ex-officio:
A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D) Leader of the House
**Answer:** **B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha**
**Explanation:** The Vice-President serves as the ex-officio Chairman (Presiding Officer) of the Rajya Sabha.
---
### Q180. In the absence of the President, the functions of the President are discharged by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) Chief Justice of India
C) Vice-President
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
**Answer:** **C) Vice-President**
**Explanation:** Under Article 65, the Vice-President acts as President during a vacancy or when the President is unable to discharge the functions of the office.
---
### Q181. The qualifications for election as Vice-President include eligibility to be elected as a member of the:
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) State Legislative Assembly
D) Legislative Council
**Answer:** **B) Rajya Sabha**
**Explanation:** A Vice-Presidential candidate must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
---
### Q182. The Vice-President may resign by addressing the resignation to the:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
**Answer:** **A) President of India**
**Explanation:** The resignation of the Vice-President is submitted to the President.
---
### Q183. Which Article deals with the office of the Prime Minister?
A) Article 72
B) Article 73
C) Article 74
D) Article 75
**Answer:** **C) Article 74**
**Explanation:** Article 74 provides for a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head to aid and advise the President.
---
### Q184. The Prime Minister of India is appointed by the:
A) Chief Justice of India
B) President of India
C) Lok Sabha
D) Rajya Sabha
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President appoints as Prime Minister the person most likely to command the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q185. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
A) President
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Lok Sabha
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **C) Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** Article 75(3) provides that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
---
### Q186. Which of the following is regarded as the **real executive** in India?
A) President
B) Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
C) Parliament
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) Prime Minister and Council of Ministers**
**Explanation:** In the parliamentary system, the President is the constitutional head, while the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers exercise real executive authority.
---
### Q187. Ministers hold office:
A) During the pleasure of the President, subject to the constitutional scheme
B) For a fixed term of five years
C) During the pleasure of the Speaker
D) Until they resign from Parliament
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Constitutionally, Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. In practice, this operates on the advice of the Prime Minister in accordance with the parliamentary system.
---
### Q188. Who allocates portfolios among Union Ministers?
A) President
B) Cabinet Secretary
C) Prime Minister
D) Lok Sabha Speaker
**Answer:** **C) Prime Minister**
**Explanation:** The Prime Minister advises the President on the appointment of Ministers and determines the distribution and reshuffling of portfolios.
---
### Q189. Which Article deals with other provisions relating to Ministers?
A) Article 74
B) Article 75
C) Article 76
D) Article 77
**Answer:** **B) Article 75**
**Explanation:** Article 75 covers appointment, tenure, salaries, oaths, and collective responsibility of Ministers.
---
### Q190. The oath of office and secrecy to Union Ministers is administered by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Vice-President
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President administers the oath prescribed in the Third Schedule.
---
### Q191. Who is known as the "Keystone of the Cabinet Arch"?
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Prime Minister
D) Cabinet Secretary
**Answer:** **C) Prime Minister**
**Explanation:** This famous description highlights the central role of the Prime Minister in coordinating and leading the Cabinet.
---
### Q192. Which Constitutional Article provides for the Attorney General of India?
A) Article 75
B) Article 76
C) Article 77
D) Article 78
**Answer:** **B) Article 76**
**Explanation:** Article 76 establishes the office of the Attorney General for India.
---
### Q193. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Parliament
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President appoints the Attorney General, who serves as the highest law officer of the Union.
---
### Q194. To be appointed as Attorney General of India, a person must be qualified to be appointed as a:
A) High Court Judge
B) Supreme Court Judge
C) District Judge
D) Advocate General
**Answer:** **B) Supreme Court Judge**
**Explanation:** The qualifications are the same as those prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
---
### Q195. The Attorney General has the right to:
A) Vote in Parliament
B) Speak and participate in the proceedings of Parliament and its committees of which they are a member, but without the right to vote
C) Introduce Money Bills independently
D) Preside over the Rajya Sabha
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Attorney General may participate in parliamentary proceedings but has no voting rights.
---
### Q196. Which of the following is **NOT** a constitutional office?
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Cabinet Secretary
D) Attorney General of India
**Answer:** **C) Cabinet Secretary**
**Explanation:** The Cabinet Secretary is a senior civil servant. The office is not created by the Constitution.
---
### Q197. Who communicates all decisions of the Union Council of Ministers to the President?
A) Cabinet Secretary
B) Home Minister
C) Prime Minister
D) Attorney General
**Answer:** **C) Prime Minister**
**Explanation:** Under Article 78, the Prime Minister keeps the President informed regarding the affairs of the Union and decisions of the Council of Ministers.
---
### Q198. Which Article deals with the duties of the Prime Minister regarding furnishing information to the President?
A) Article 76
B) Article 77
C) Article 78
D) Article 79
**Answer:** **C) Article 78**
**Explanation:** Article 78 imposes constitutional duties on the Prime Minister to keep the President informed.
---
### Q199. Which of the following is **NOT** a feature of the Parliamentary System in India?
A) Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers
B) Real executive is the Council of Ministers
C) Fixed tenure of the executive irrespective of legislative confidence
D) Leadership of the Prime Minister
**Answer:** **C) Fixed tenure of the executive irrespective of legislative confidence**
**Explanation:** In a parliamentary system, the executive must retain the confidence of the Lok Sabha. It does not enjoy a fixed tenure independent of legislative support.
---
### Q200. Which of the following best describes the constitutional relationship between the President and the Prime Minister?
A) The President independently exercises all executive powers.
B) The Prime Minister is subordinate to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
C) The President ordinarily acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, subject to the Constitution.
D) The President is required to seek prior approval of Parliament for every executive action.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Under Articles 74 and 75, India follows a parliamentary system in which the President is the constitutional head, while the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister exercises real executive authority.
Excellent! Let's begin **Volume 3**.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 3 – Part 1 (Questions 201–225)**
**Topic:** Parliament of India (Articles 79–88)
---
### Q201. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Parliament?
A) Part IV
B) Part V
C) Part VI
D) Part VII
**Answer:** **B) Part V**
**Explanation:** Part V (Chapter II, Articles 79–122) deals with the Parliament of India, including its composition, officers, legislative procedure, and powers.
---
### Q202. Which Article provides that there shall be a Parliament for the Union?
A) Article 78
B) Article 79
C) Article 80
D) Article 81
**Answer:** **B) Article 79**
**Explanation:** Article 79 establishes the Parliament of India, consisting of the President, the Rajya Sabha, and the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q203. Parliament of India consists of:
A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
B) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
C) President and Lok Sabha only
D) President and Rajya Sabha only
**Answer:** **B) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha**
**Explanation:** Constitutionally, Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses of Parliament.
---
### Q204. The Upper House of Parliament is known as:
A) Legislative Assembly
B) Lok Sabha
C) Rajya Sabha
D) Council of Ministers
**Answer:** **C) Rajya Sabha**
**Explanation:** Rajya Sabha is the Council of States and represents the States and Union Territories.
---
### Q205. The Lower House of Parliament is known as:
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) Legislative Council
D) State Assembly
**Answer:** **B) Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** The Lok Sabha is the House of the People and is directly elected by citizens.
---
### Q206. Which Article deals with the composition of the Rajya Sabha?
A) Article 79
B) Article 80
C) Article 81
D) Article 82
**Answer:** **B) Article 80**
**Explanation:** Article 80 specifies the composition of the Rajya Sabha.
---
### Q207. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is:
A) 238
B) 245
C) 250
D) 252
**Answer:** **C) 250**
**Explanation:** The Constitution provides for a maximum of **250 members** (238 representatives of States and Union Territories, and up to 12 nominated members).
---
### Q208. How many members of the Rajya Sabha can be nominated by the President?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 20
**Answer:** **B) 12**
**Explanation:** The President may nominate up to **12 members** having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, or social service.
---
### Q209. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
A) Direct election
B) Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
C) President
D) Prime Minister
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Elected MLAs elect the representatives of the States to the Rajya Sabha using the proportional representation system by means of the single transferable vote.
---
### Q210. The Rajya Sabha is a:
A) Temporary House
B) Permanent House
C) Nominated House
D) Judicial Body
**Answer:** **B) Permanent House**
**Explanation:** The Rajya Sabha is a continuing body and is never dissolved.
---
### Q211. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every:
A) Year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Five years
**Answer:** **B) Two years**
**Explanation:** Each Rajya Sabha member has a six-year term, with one-third retiring every two years.
---
### Q212. The normal term of a Rajya Sabha member is:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Seven years
**Answer:** **C) Six years**
**Explanation:** Members of the Rajya Sabha serve a six-year term unless they resign or become disqualified.
---
### Q213. Which Article deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha?
A) Article 80
B) Article 81
C) Article 82
D) Article 83
**Answer:** **B) Article 81**
**Explanation:** Article 81 deals with the composition of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
---
### Q214. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by:
A) State Legislatures
B) President
C) Direct election by the people
D) Rajya Sabha
**Answer:** **C) Direct election by the people**
**Explanation:** Lok Sabha members are chosen through direct elections based on universal adult suffrage.
---
### Q215. The normal tenure of the Lok Sabha is:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Seven years
**Answer:** **B) Five years**
**Explanation:** Under Article 83, the Lok Sabha normally continues for five years unless sooner dissolved.
---
### Q216. During a National Emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha may be extended by:
A) Six months at a time
B) One year at a time
C) Two years at a time
D) Three years at a time
**Answer:** **B) One year at a time**
**Explanation:** Parliament may extend the term of the Lok Sabha by one year at a time during a National Emergency, but not beyond six months after the Emergency ceases.
---
### Q217. The minimum age for membership of the Lok Sabha is:
A) 21 years
B) 25 years
C) 30 years
D) 35 years
**Answer:** **B) 25 years**
**Explanation:** A person must be at least 25 years old to contest for the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q218. The minimum age for membership of the Rajya Sabha is:
A) 25 years
B) 28 years
C) 30 years
D) 35 years
**Answer:** **C) 30 years**
**Explanation:** A Rajya Sabha candidate must have attained the age of 30 years.
---
### Q219. Which Article deals with the duration of the Houses of Parliament?
A) Article 82
B) Article 83
C) Article 84
D) Article 85
**Answer:** **B) Article 83**
**Explanation:** Article 83 specifies the duration of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q220. Qualifications for membership of Parliament are provided under:
A) Article 83
B) Article 84
C) Article 85
D) Article 86
**Answer:** **B) Article 84**
**Explanation:** Article 84 lays down the qualifications required for becoming a Member of Parliament.
---
### Q221. A Member of Parliament must:
A) Be a citizen of India
B) Possess qualifications prescribed by Parliament
C) Satisfy the age requirement applicable to the House
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** Article 84 requires Indian citizenship, the prescribed age, and any additional qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
---
### Q222. Which Article empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament?
A) Article 84
B) Article 85
C) Article 86
D) Article 87
**Answer:** **B) Article 85**
**Explanation:** Article 85 empowers the President to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q223. The maximum interval between two sessions of Parliament shall not exceed:
A) Three months
B) Four months
C) Six months
D) One year
**Answer:** **C) Six months**
**Explanation:** The Constitution requires that no more than six months shall elapse between the last sitting of one session and the first sitting of the next.
---
### Q224. Which Article gives the President the right to address either House of Parliament?
A) Article 86
B) Article 87
C) Article 88
D) Article 89
**Answer:** **A) Article 86**
**Explanation:** Article 86 empowers the President to address either House or both Houses assembled together and to send messages to them.
---
### Q225. The President's Special Address to both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the first session each year is provided under:
A) Article 86
B) Article 87
C) Article 88
D) Article 89
**Answer:** **B) Article 87**
**Explanation:** Article 87 requires the President to address both Houses together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha and at the beginning of the first session of each year, outlining the Government's policies and legislative agenda.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 3 – Part 2 (Questions 226–250)**
**Topics:** Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Chairman of Rajya Sabha, Deputy Chairman, Sessions, Quorum, Joint Sitting & Parliamentary Officers
---
### Q226. Which Article provides for the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A) Article 91
B) Article 93
C) Article 94
D) Article 95
**Answer:** **B) Article 93**
**Explanation:** Article 93 requires the Lok Sabha to choose two of its members as the Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
---
### Q227. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by:
A) President of India
B) Members of the Lok Sabha
C) Prime Minister
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B) Members of the Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves.
---
### Q228. The Speaker normally remains in office:
A) Until the President removes them
B) During the life of the Lok Sabha and until immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha, unless they resign or are removed earlier
C) For a fixed term of five years irrespective of dissolution
D) Until retirement at the age of 65
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Under Article 94, the Speaker continues even after dissolution of the Lok Sabha until just before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha.
---
### Q229. The Speaker may resign by addressing the resignation to the:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Deputy Speaker
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **C) Deputy Speaker**
**Explanation:** The Speaker resigns by writing addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
---
### Q230. The Speaker can be removed from office by:
A) President's order
B) Resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members of the House after due notice, as provided by the Constitution and the Rules
C) Supreme Court order
D) Prime Minister's recommendation alone
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution requires advance notice and adoption of a resolution by the requisite majority in the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q231. Who presides over the Lok Sabha when the Speaker is absent?
A) President
B) Deputy Speaker
C) Prime Minister
D) Leader of Opposition
**Answer:** **B) Deputy Speaker**
**Explanation:** The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker during their absence or when the office is vacant.
---
### Q232. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has:
A) An ordinary vote only
B) A casting vote in the event of equality of votes, in addition to the position of presiding over the House
C) No voting rights under any circumstance
D) Two votes on every question
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Speaker ordinarily does not vote but exercises a casting vote to break a tie.
---
### Q233. Which Article deals with the salaries and allowances of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker?
A) Article 95
B) Article 97
C) Article 99
D) Article 100
**Answer:** **B) Article 97**
**Explanation:** Article 97 provides that Parliament may determine the salaries and allowances of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker by law.
---
### Q234. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is:
A) President of India
B) Vice-President of India
C) Prime Minister
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
**Answer:** **B) Vice-President of India**
**Explanation:** Under Article 64, the Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
---
### Q235. Which Article provides for the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
A) Article 88
B) Article 89
C) Article 90
D) Article 91
**Answer:** **B) Article 89**
**Explanation:** Article 89 requires the Rajya Sabha to choose one of its members as the Deputy Chairman.
---
### Q236. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by:
A) President
B) Rajya Sabha from among its members
C) Prime Minister
D) Lok Sabha
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members.
---
### Q237. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha may resign by addressing the resignation to the:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Vice-President)
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Deputy Chairman submits their resignation to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
---
### Q238. Which Article deals with vacation, resignation, and removal of the Deputy Chairman?
A) Article 90
B) Article 91
C) Article 92
D) Article 93
**Answer:** **A) Article 90**
**Explanation:** Article 90 lays down the procedure relating to the Deputy Chairman's office.
---
### Q239. Which Article provides for the power of the Deputy Chairman or another person to perform the duties of the Chairman?
A) Article 90
B) Article 91
C) Article 92
D) Article 93
**Answer:** **B) Article 91**
**Explanation:** Article 91 provides for arrangements when the office of Chairman is vacant or when the Chairman is unable to perform the duties.
---
### Q240. Which Article deals with the Chairman or Speaker not presiding while a resolution for their removal is under consideration?
A) Article 91
B) Article 92
C) Article 93
D) Article 94
**Answer:** **B) Article 92**
**Explanation:** During consideration of a removal resolution, the presiding officer concerned does not preside over the sitting.
---
### Q241. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is:
A) One-fourth of the total membership
B) One-tenth of the total membership
C) One-fifth of the total membership
D) Fifty members
**Answer:** **B) One-tenth of the total membership**
**Explanation:** Article 100 provides that the quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
---
### Q242. Which Article deals with voting in the Houses of Parliament?
A) Article 99
B) Article 100
C) Article 101
D) Article 102
**Answer:** **B) Article 100**
**Explanation:** Article 100 deals with voting, quorum, and the manner in which questions are decided.
---
### Q243. Which Article requires every Member of Parliament to take an oath or affirmation before taking their seat?
A) Article 98
B) Article 99
C) Article 100
D) Article 101
**Answer:** **B) Article 99**
**Explanation:** Members must take the prescribed oath or affirmation before participating in the proceedings of the House.
---
### Q244. Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament is provided under:
A) Article 107
B) Article 108
C) Article 109
D) Article 110
**Answer:** **B) Article 108**
**Explanation:** Article 108 provides for a Joint Sitting to resolve certain legislative deadlocks between the two Houses.
---
### Q245. A Joint Sitting of Parliament is summoned by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President may summon a Joint Sitting under Article 108 when the constitutional conditions are satisfied.
---
### Q246. Who presides over a Joint Sitting of Parliament?
A) President of India
B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Prime Minister
**Answer:** **C) Speaker of Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** The Speaker presides over a Joint Sitting. In their absence, the Deputy Speaker or, if necessary, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides according to the statutory order.
---
### Q247. Which of the following Bills cannot be considered in a Joint Sitting?
A) Ordinary Bill
B) Money Bill
C) Bill other than a Constitutional Amendment Bill
D) Financial Bill (Category I)
**Answer:** **B) Money Bill**
**Explanation:** A Joint Sitting is **not** provided for Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills.
---
### Q248. Which of the following is also **not** subject to a Joint Sitting under Article 108?
A) Ordinary Bill
B) Constitutional Amendment Bill
C) Non-Money Government Bill
D) Private Member's Ordinary Bill
**Answer:** **B) Constitutional Amendment Bill**
**Explanation:** Constitutional Amendment Bills under Article 368 must be passed separately by each House and cannot be resolved through a Joint Sitting.
---
### Q249. The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha is appointed by the:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D) Cabinet Secretary
**Answer:** **C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** The Secretary-General functions under the direction of the Speaker and heads the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
---
### Q250. Which of the following correctly distinguishes the presiding officers of the two Houses?
A) The Speaker presides over the Rajya Sabha, while the Vice-President presides over the Lok Sabha.
B) The Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha, while the Vice-President serves as the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
C) The President presides over both Houses.
D) The Prime Minister presides over joint sessions and the Lok Sabha.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Speaker is the constitutional presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, whereas the Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Excellent! We'll continue with **Volume 3 – Part 3 (Questions 251–275)**.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 3 – Part 3 (Questions 251–275)**
**Topic:** Legislative Procedure – Ordinary Bills, Money Bills, Financial Bills & Constitutional Amendment Bills
---
### Q251. Which Article deals with the introduction and passing of Ordinary Bills?
A) Article 106
B) Article 107
C) Article 108
D) Article 109
**Answer:** **B) Article 107**
**Explanation:** Article 107 lays down the procedure for introducing and passing Ordinary Bills in Parliament.
---
### Q252. An Ordinary Bill may be introduced in:
A) Lok Sabha only
B) Rajya Sabha only
C) Either House of Parliament
D) Joint Sitting only
**Answer:** **C) Either House of Parliament**
**Explanation:** An Ordinary Bill may originate in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
---
### Q253. An Ordinary Bill becomes law only after:
A) Approval of the President
B) Passage by one House only
C) Passage by both Houses of Parliament and Presidential assent
D) Approval by the Supreme Court
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** An Ordinary Bill must be passed by both Houses in the prescribed manner and receive the President's assent.
---
### Q254. Which Article provides for a Joint Sitting of Parliament in case of a deadlock over an Ordinary Bill?
A) Article 107
B) Article 108
C) Article 109
D) Article 110
**Answer:** **B) Article 108**
**Explanation:** A Joint Sitting may be summoned by the President under Article 108 if the constitutional conditions for resolving a deadlock are satisfied.
---
### Q255. Which of the following is **NOT** a condition for summoning a Joint Sitting?
A) One House rejects the Bill.
B) The Houses finally disagree on the amendments.
C) More than six months elapse without the other House passing the Bill.
D) The President refuses assent after both Houses pass the Bill.
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** Article 108 applies to legislative deadlocks between the two Houses. It does not apply after a Bill has been passed by both Houses and sent to the President.
---
### Q256. Which Article defines a Money Bill?
A) Article 109
B) Article 110
C) Article 111
D) Article 112
**Answer:** **B) Article 110**
**Explanation:** Article 110 specifies the matters that make a Bill a Money Bill, such as taxation, borrowing of money, the Consolidated Fund of India, and related financial matters.
---
### Q257. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the:
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Either House
C) Lok Sabha
D) Joint Sitting
**Answer:** **C) Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** Under Article 109 read with Article 110, a Money Bill can originate only in the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q258. A Money Bill can be introduced only on the recommendation of the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Finance Minister
D) Speaker
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** Prior recommendation of the President is constitutionally required before introducing a Money Bill.
---
### Q259. Who certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill?
A) President
B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Attorney General
**Answer:** **C) Speaker of Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** Under Article 110(3), the decision of the Speaker on whether a Bill is a Money Bill is final.
---
### Q260. After receiving a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha must return it within:
A) 7 days
B) 10 days
C) 14 days
D) 30 days
**Answer:** **C) 14 days**
**Explanation:** The Rajya Sabha may make recommendations but must return the Bill within 14 days.
---
### Q261. If the Rajya Sabha does not return a Money Bill within 14 days:
A) The Bill lapses.
B) The Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Lok Sabha.
C) A Joint Sitting must be held.
D) The President rejects the Bill.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution deems the Bill to have been passed after the expiry of the 14-day period.
---
### Q262. The Rajya Sabha can:
A) Reject a Money Bill.
B) Amend a Money Bill.
C) Recommend amendments to a Money Bill.
D) Return a Money Bill with binding amendments.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Lok Sabha may accept or reject the Rajya Sabha's recommendations.
---
### Q263. Which House has the final authority regarding a Money Bill?
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) President
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** The Lok Sabha is the dominant House in respect of Money Bills.
---
### Q264. Which Article deals with the President's assent to Bills?
A) Article 110
B) Article 111
C) Article 112
D) Article 113
**Answer:** **B) Article 111**
**Explanation:** Article 111 empowers the President to assent to a Bill or, in the case of a Bill other than a Money Bill, return it for reconsideration.
---
### Q265. The President may return for reconsideration:
A) Money Bill only
B) Constitutional Amendment Bill only
C) Ordinary Bill
D) Appropriation Bill
**Answer:** **C) Ordinary Bill**
**Explanation:** The President may return a Bill other than a Money Bill for reconsideration. If Parliament passes it again, the President is bound to give assent.
---
### Q266. Which of the following Bills **cannot** be returned by the President for reconsideration?
A) Ordinary Bill
B) Money Bill
C) Private Member's Bill
D) Government Bill
**Answer:** **B) Money Bill**
**Explanation:** The Constitution does not permit the President to return a Money Bill for reconsideration.
---
### Q267. Which Article deals with the Annual Financial Statement (Budget)?
A) Article 111
B) Article 112
C) Article 113
D) Article 114
**Answer:** **B) Article 112**
**Explanation:** Article 112 requires the President to cause the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before both Houses of Parliament.
---
### Q268. Which of the following is another name for the Annual Financial Statement?
A) Finance Commission
B) Union Budget
C) Finance Bill
D) Economic Survey
**Answer:** **B) Union Budget**
**Explanation:** The Annual Financial Statement is commonly known as the Union Budget.
---
### Q269. Constitutional Amendment Bills are governed by:
A) Article 111
B) Article 112
C) Article 368
D) Article 370
**Answer:** **C) Article 368**
**Explanation:** Article 368 lays down the procedure for amending the Constitution.
---
### Q270. A Constitutional Amendment Bill may be introduced in:
A) Lok Sabha only
B) Rajya Sabha only
C) Either House of Parliament
D) State Legislature only
**Answer:** **C) Either House of Parliament**
**Explanation:** A Constitutional Amendment Bill may originate in either House.
---
### Q271. Prior recommendation of the President is required before introducing a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
A) True
B) False
C) Required only in the Lok Sabha
D) Required only in the Rajya Sabha
**Answer:** **B) False**
**Explanation:** No prior recommendation of the President is required to introduce a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
---
### Q272. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed through:
A) Joint Sitting
B) Special Majority as prescribed by Article 368
C) Simple Majority only
D) Voice Vote only
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Most Constitutional Amendment Bills require a special majority in each House, and certain amendments additionally require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
---
### Q273. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bills?
A) They can be passed in a Joint Sitting.
B) They lapse if not passed within 14 days.
C) They must be passed separately by each House.
D) They require approval by all State Legislatures.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Article 368 does not provide for a Joint Sitting in the case of Constitutional Amendment Bills.
---
### Q274. After a Constitutional Amendment Bill is duly passed by Parliament, the President:
A) May return it for reconsideration.
B) Must give assent.
C) May withhold assent.
D) Must refer it to the Supreme Court.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Under Article 368, once a Constitutional Amendment Bill is duly passed in accordance with the Constitution, the President is required to give assent.
---
### Q275. Which of the following correctly distinguishes an Ordinary Bill from a Money Bill?
A) An Ordinary Bill can originate only in the Lok Sabha.
B) A Money Bill can originate in either House.
C) An Ordinary Bill may originate in either House, whereas a Money Bill can originate only in the Lok Sabha on the President's recommendation.
D) Both follow exactly the same constitutional procedure.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** This is a key constitutional distinction. Ordinary Bills may originate in either House, while Money Bills are subject to special constitutional procedures, including mandatory introduction in the Lok Sabha and certification by the Speaker.
Excellent! Here is the next section.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 3 – Part 4 (Questions 276–300)**
**Topics:** Union Budget, Parliamentary Committees, Parliamentary Privileges, Question Hour, Zero Hour & Parliamentary Devices
---
### Q276. The Annual Financial Statement is popularly known as:
A) Economic Survey
B) Union Budget
C) Finance Commission Report
D) Appropriation Bill
**Answer:** **B) Union Budget**
**Explanation:** Under Article 112, the Annual Financial Statement, commonly called the Union Budget, sets out the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for a financial year.
---
### Q277. The financial year of the Government of India is:
A) January–December
B) April–March
C) July–June
D) October–September
**Answer:** **B) April–March**
**Explanation:** India's financial year runs from **1 April to 31 March**.
---
### Q278. Which Article deals with the procedure in Parliament regarding estimates?
A) Article 112
B) Article 113
C) Article 114
D) Article 115
**Answer:** **B) Article 113**
**Explanation:** Article 113 governs the consideration of estimates and voting on demands for grants in the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q279. The demands for grants are voted by:
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) Both Houses jointly
D) President
**Answer:** **B) Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** Only the Lok Sabha has the power to vote on demands for grants because it directly represents the people.
---
### Q280. Which Article provides for the Appropriation Bill?
A) Article 113
B) Article 114
C) Article 115
D) Article 116
**Answer:** **B) Article 114**
**Explanation:** After the demands for grants are voted, the Appropriation Bill authorizes the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
---
### Q281. Which Article provides for Supplementary, Additional, Excess and Exceptional Grants?
A) Article 114
B) Article 115
C) Article 116
D) Article 117
**Answer:** **B) Article 115**
**Explanation:** Article 115 deals with grants required beyond the original budget estimates.
---
### Q282. Which Article deals with Vote on Account, Vote of Credit and Exceptional Grants?
A) Article 115
B) Article 116
C) Article 117
D) Article 118
**Answer:** **B) Article 116**
**Explanation:** These mechanisms allow expenditure in special situations before the full budget process is completed.
---
### Q283. Which House has the exclusive power to vote on Demands for Grants?
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) Joint Sitting
D) President
**Answer:** **B) Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** The Rajya Sabha may discuss the budget but cannot vote on demands for grants.
---
### Q284. Which Committee examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
A) Estimates Committee
B) Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
C) Committee on Public Undertakings
D) Business Advisory Committee
**Answer:** **B) Public Accounts Committee (PAC)**
**Explanation:** The PAC scrutinizes government expenditure based on CAG reports and ensures that public funds have been spent according to Parliament's approval.
---
### Q285. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is generally:
A) Prime Minister
B) Speaker
C) A member of the Opposition
D) Finance Minister
**Answer:** **C) A member of the Opposition**
**Explanation:** By convention, the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee is chosen from the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q286. Which Parliamentary Committee examines whether government expenditure is within the limits of the policy approved by Parliament?
A) Estimates Committee
B) Public Accounts Committee
C) Committee on Public Undertakings
D) Rules Committee
**Answer:** **A) Estimates Committee**
**Explanation:** The Estimates Committee suggests improvements in administrative efficiency and economy in public expenditure.
---
### Q287. Which Committee examines the working of Public Sector Undertakings?
A) Estimates Committee
B) Public Accounts Committee
C) Committee on Public Undertakings
D) Privileges Committee
**Answer:** **C) Committee on Public Undertakings**
**Explanation:** This Committee reviews the reports and accounts of Public Sector Undertakings and evaluates their performance.
---
### Q288. Parliamentary Committees are generally classified as:
A) Judicial and Executive
B) Standing and Ad Hoc
C) Permanent and Temporary Governments
D) Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Courts
**Answer:** **B) Standing and Ad Hoc**
**Explanation:** Parliamentary Committees are broadly divided into Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees.
---
### Q289. Parliamentary Privileges are intended to:
A) Give personal benefits to Members
B) Ensure Parliament functions independently and effectively
C) Protect political parties only
D) Exempt Members from all laws
**Answer:** **B) Ensure Parliament functions independently and effectively**
**Explanation:** Parliamentary privileges protect the dignity, authority, and efficient functioning of Parliament.
---
### Q290. Which Article deals with the powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its Members?
A) Article 103
B) Article 105
C) Article 107
D) Article 110
**Answer:** **B) Article 105**
**Explanation:** Article 105 provides for the powers, privileges, and immunities of each House of Parliament and its Members.
---
### Q291. Question Hour is generally the:
A) First hour of a sitting
B) Last hour of a sitting
C) Middle hour of a sitting
D) First half of the day only
**Answer:** **A) First hour of a sitting**
**Explanation:** During Question Hour, Members ask questions to Ministers to obtain information and ensure executive accountability.
---
### Q292. Zero Hour is:
A) Mentioned in the Constitution
B) Mentioned in the Rules of Procedure
C) A parliamentary convention that developed in practice
D) Mandatory under Article 105
**Answer:** **C) A parliamentary convention that developed in practice**
**Explanation:** Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Constitution or the Rules of Procedure. It evolved as a parliamentary practice to raise urgent public matters.
---
### Q293. Which Motion is moved to test whether the Council of Ministers enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha?
A) Adjournment Motion
B) Calling Attention Motion
C) No-Confidence Motion
D) Cut Motion
**Answer:** **C) No-Confidence Motion**
**Explanation:** A No-Confidence Motion is directed against the Council of Ministers as a whole and, if passed, requires the Ministry to resign.
---
### Q294. Which House alone can pass a No-Confidence Motion?
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) Both Houses
D) Joint Sitting
**Answer:** **B) Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** Since the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, only that House can express lack of confidence.
---
### Q295. An Adjournment Motion is intended to:
A) Amend the Constitution
B) Discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance by interrupting the normal business of the House
C) Remove the President
D) Pass the Budget
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** An Adjournment Motion is an extraordinary device to draw attention to urgent matters of public importance.
---
### Q296. A Cut Motion is moved during the discussion on:
A) Constitutional Amendment Bill
B) Demands for Grants
C) Money Bill only
D) President's Address
**Answer:** **B) Demands for Grants**
**Explanation:** Cut Motions enable Members to propose reductions in demands for grants and to discuss government policies and expenditure.
---
### Q297. Which of the following is **NOT** a type of Cut Motion?
A) Policy Cut
B) Economy Cut
C) Token Cut
D) Constitutional Cut
**Answer:** **D) Constitutional Cut**
**Explanation:** The recognized types are Policy Cut, Economy Cut, and Token Cut.
---
### Q298. Which Parliamentary device enables Members to draw the attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance and seek an authoritative statement?
A) Calling Attention Notice
B) Privilege Motion
C) No-Confidence Motion
D) Censure Motion
**Answer:** **A) Calling Attention Notice**
**Explanation:** This device allows Members to raise urgent matters and obtain a formal response from the concerned Minister.
---
### Q299. Which Parliamentary Committee is responsible for examining Bills referred to it in detail before they are considered by the House?
A) Public Accounts Committee
B) Department-related Standing Committee
C) Estimates Committee
D) Business Advisory Committee
**Answer:** **B) Department-related Standing Committee**
**Explanation:** Department-related Standing Committees scrutinize Bills, Demands for Grants, and policy matters relating to specific Ministries and Departments.
---
### Q300. Which statement best reflects the constitutional role of Parliament in India's parliamentary democracy?
A) Parliament performs only legislative functions.
B) Parliament performs legislative, financial, deliberative, representative, and executive oversight functions.
C) Parliament exercises judicial powers only.
D) Parliament functions only during Budget Sessions.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Parliament is the central institution of India's parliamentary democracy. Besides making laws, it authorizes expenditure, debates national issues, represents the people and States, and holds the Executive accountable through various constitutional and parliamentary mechanisms.
Excellent! We'll continue with **Volume 4 – Part 1 (Questions 301–325)**.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 4 – Part 1 (Questions 301–325)**
**Topic:** Supreme Court of India (Articles 124–131)
---
### Q301. Which Part of the Constitution deals with the Union Judiciary?
A) Part IV
B) Part V
C) Part VI
D) Part VII
**Answer:** **B) Part V**
**Explanation:** Chapter IV of Part V (Articles 124–147) deals with the Supreme Court of India.
---
### Q302. Which Article provides for the establishment of the Supreme Court of India?
A) Article 123
B) Article 124
C) Article 125
D) Article 126
**Answer:** **B) Article 124**
**Explanation:** Article 124 establishes the Supreme Court and provides for the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and other Judges.
---
### Q303. The Supreme Court of India came into existence on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 January 1950
C) 28 January 1950
D) 26 November 1949
**Answer:** **C) 28 January 1950**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court was inaugurated on **28 January 1950**, replacing the Federal Court of India.
---
### Q304. The first Chief Justice of India was:
A) Justice M. Patanjali Sastri
B) Justice H. J. Kania
C) Justice M. Hidayatullah
D) Justice B. K. Mukherjea
**Answer:** **B) Justice H. J. Kania**
**Explanation:** Justice Harilal Jekisundas Kania became the first Chief Justice of independent India's Supreme Court.
---
### Q305. Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Parliament
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** Under Article 124, the President appoints the Chief Justice of India and other Judges in accordance with the constitutional process.
---
### Q306. A person to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court must be:
A) A citizen of India
B) Qualified under Article 124
C) Of good character
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** Constitutionally, a Supreme Court Judge must be an Indian citizen and satisfy the qualifications prescribed by Article 124. Good character and integrity are expected in judicial appointments.
---
### Q307. Which of the following is **NOT** a constitutional qualification for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court?
A) Citizen of India
B) At least five years as a Judge of a High Court
C) At least ten years as an advocate of a High Court
D) Minimum age of 45 years
**Answer:** **D) Minimum age of 45 years**
**Explanation:** The Constitution does **not prescribe a minimum age** for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge.
---
### Q308. A distinguished jurist may also be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court in the opinion of the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Parliament
**Answer:** **B) President**
**Explanation:** Article 124 permits the appointment of a distinguished jurist if, in the opinion of the President, the person is so qualified.
---
### Q309. The retirement age of a Judge of the Supreme Court is:
A) 60 years
B) 62 years
C) 65 years
D) 68 years
**Answer:** **C) 65 years**
**Explanation:** Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of **65 years**.
---
### Q310. The retirement age of a High Court Judge is:
A) 60 years
B) 62 years
C) 65 years
D) 70 years
**Answer:** **B) 62 years**
**Explanation:** High Court Judges retire at **62 years**, a frequently tested distinction from Supreme Court Judges.
---
### Q311. Which Article deals with the salaries of Supreme Court Judges?
A) Article 124
B) Article 125
C) Article 126
D) Article 127
**Answer:** **B) Article 125**
**Explanation:** Article 125 provides for the salaries, allowances, and rights relating to leave and pension of Supreme Court Judges.
---
### Q312. An Acting Chief Justice of India is appointed under:
A) Article 125
B) Article 126
C) Article 127
D) Article 128
**Answer:** **B) Article 126**
**Explanation:** When the office of the Chief Justice is vacant or the CJI is unable to perform duties, the President may appoint an Acting Chief Justice.
---
### Q313. Which Article provides for the appointment of ad hoc Judges in the Supreme Court?
A) Article 126
B) Article 127
C) Article 128
D) Article 129
**Answer:** **B) Article 127**
**Explanation:** Ad hoc Judges may be appointed to ensure the effective functioning of the Supreme Court when there is a lack of quorum.
---
### Q314. Which Article permits retired Judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts to sit and act as Judges of the Supreme Court with their consent?
A) Article 127
B) Article 128
C) Article 129
D) Article 130
**Answer:** **B) Article 128**
**Explanation:** Retired Judges may sit in the Supreme Court when requested, subject to constitutional requirements.
---
### Q315. The Supreme Court is declared to be a Court of Record under:
A) Article 128
B) Article 129
C) Article 130
D) Article 131
**Answer:** **B) Article 129**
**Explanation:** As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has the power to punish for contempt of itself, and its records have evidentiary value.
---
### Q316. Which Article deals with the seat of the Supreme Court?
A) Article 129
B) Article 130
C) Article 131
D) Article 132
**Answer:** **B) Article 130**
**Explanation:** The seat of the Supreme Court is New Delhi, though the Chief Justice, with the President's approval, may hold sittings elsewhere.
---
### Q317. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is provided under:
A) Article 130
B) Article 131
C) Article 132
D) Article 133
**Answer:** **B) Article 131**
**Explanation:** Article 131 confers exclusive original jurisdiction over certain disputes between the Union and one or more States, or between States.
---
### Q318. Which of the following disputes falls under the Supreme Court's original jurisdiction?
A) Civil dispute between two private individuals
B) Criminal appeal from a Sessions Court
C) Dispute between the Union and a State involving a legal right
D) Divorce proceedings
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Such federal disputes are heard directly by the Supreme Court under Article 131.
---
### Q319. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between:
A) Two private companies
B) Two States
C) Union and one or more States
D) Both **B** and **C**
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** Article 131 covers specified disputes involving the Union and/or States.
---
### Q320. Which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court allows appeals from High Courts?
A) Original Jurisdiction
B) Advisory Jurisdiction
C) Appellate Jurisdiction
D) Writ Jurisdiction
**Answer:** **C) Appellate Jurisdiction**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court hears constitutional, civil, and criminal appeals from High Courts subject to constitutional provisions.
---
### Q321. Which Article deals with appeals involving constitutional questions from High Courts?
A) Article 131
B) Article 132
C) Article 133
D) Article 134
**Answer:** **B) Article 132**
**Explanation:** Article 132 provides for appeals to the Supreme Court where a substantial question of law regarding the interpretation of the Constitution is involved.
---
### Q322. Appeals in civil matters are governed by:
A) Article 132
B) Article 133
C) Article 134
D) Article 136
**Answer:** **B) Article 133**
**Explanation:** Article 133 lays down the conditions under which civil appeals may be made to the Supreme Court.
---
### Q323. Appeals in criminal matters are provided under:
A) Article 133
B) Article 134
C) Article 135
D) Article 136
**Answer:** **B) Article 134**
**Explanation:** Article 134 deals with criminal appeals from High Courts to the Supreme Court.
---
### Q324. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to grant Special Leave to Appeal (SLP)?
A) Article 134
B) Article 135
C) Article 136
D) Article 137
**Answer:** **C) Article 136**
**Explanation:** Article 136 gives the Supreme Court wide discretionary power to grant special leave to appeal against judgments, decrees, or orders from courts and tribunals (with limited constitutional exceptions).
---
### Q325. Which jurisdiction makes the Supreme Court the guardian of the federal system by deciding disputes between the Union and States?
A) Advisory Jurisdiction
B) Appellate Jurisdiction
C) Original Jurisdiction
D) Review Jurisdiction
**Answer:** **C) Original Jurisdiction**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court's original jurisdiction under Article 131 is a key feature of India's federal structure, enabling it to resolve specified disputes between the Union and the States without requiring prior proceedings in lower courts.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 4 – Part 2 (Questions 326–350)**
**Topic:** Supreme Court – Advisory, Review, Writ Jurisdiction, Judicial Review, PIL & Independence of Judiciary
---
### Q326. Which Article empowers the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance?
A) Article 141
B) Article 143
C) Article 144
D) Article 145
**Answer:** **B) Article 143**
**Explanation:** Article 143 confers the **Advisory Jurisdiction** of the Supreme Court. The President may refer questions of law or fact of public importance to the Court for its advisory opinion.
---
### Q327. The Advisory Opinion of the Supreme Court under Article 143 is:
A) Always binding on the President
B) Not binding on the President
C) Binding only if Parliament approves
D) Binding only during an Emergency
**Answer:** **B) Not binding on the President**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court's opinion under Article 143 is advisory. The President may accept or decline to act upon it.
---
### Q328. Which Article declares that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?
A) Article 140
B) Article 141
C) Article 142
D) Article 143
**Answer:** **B) Article 141**
**Explanation:** The doctrine of precedent under Article 141 ensures uniform interpretation and application of law across the country.
---
### Q329. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice?
A) Article 141
B) Article 142
C) Article 143
D) Article 144
**Answer:** **B) Article 142**
**Explanation:** Article 142 enables the Supreme Court to pass appropriate orders to ensure complete justice in matters before it.
---
### Q330. Which Article requires all civil and judicial authorities in India to act in aid of the Supreme Court?
A) Article 142
B) Article 143
C) Article 144
D) Article 145
**Answer:** **C) Article 144**
**Explanation:** All authorities, civil and judicial, are constitutionally bound to assist the Supreme Court.
---
### Q331. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to frame its own rules of procedure?
A) Article 143
B) Article 144
C) Article 145
D) Article 146
**Answer:** **C) Article 145**
**Explanation:** Subject to the Constitution and parliamentary law, the Supreme Court frames its own procedural rules.
---
### Q332. Which Article deals with the officers and servants of the Supreme Court?
A) Article 145
B) Article 146
C) Article 147
D) Article 148
**Answer:** **B) Article 146**
**Explanation:** Article 146 provides for the appointment and service conditions of officers and employees of the Supreme Court.
---
### Q333. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments?
A) Article 136
B) Article 137
C) Article 141
D) Article 143
**Answer:** **B) Article 137**
**Explanation:** Article 137 grants the Supreme Court the power to review its judgments or orders, subject to laws made by Parliament and the Court's rules.
---
### Q334. Judicial Review in India means:
A) Review of judicial appointments
B) Power of courts to examine the constitutional validity of laws and executive actions
C) Review of elections by Parliament
D) Power of Governors to review laws
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Judicial Review enables constitutional courts to invalidate laws or executive actions inconsistent with the Constitution.
---
### Q335. Judicial Review is regarded as a part of:
A) Directive Principles
B) Fundamental Duties
C) Basic Structure of the Constitution
D) Parliamentary Privileges
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court has held that Judicial Review forms part of the Constitution's Basic Structure.
---
### Q336. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A) Article 30
B) Article 32
C) Article 136
D) Article 226
**Answer:** **B) Article 32**
**Explanation:** Article 32 guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies and empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcing Fundamental Rights.
---
### Q337. Which writ is issued to produce a detained person before the Court?
A) Mandamus
B) Habeas Corpus
C) Prohibition
D) Quo Warranto
**Answer:** **B) Habeas Corpus**
**Explanation:** Habeas Corpus protects personal liberty by requiring that the legality of a person's detention be examined by the Court.
---
### Q338. Which writ directs a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty?
A) Certiorari
B) Mandamus
C) Prohibition
D) Habeas Corpus
**Answer:** **B) Mandamus**
**Explanation:** Mandamus compels a public authority to perform a duty imposed by law.
---
### Q339. Which writ is issued to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from proceeding beyond its jurisdiction?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Certiorari
C) Prohibition
D) Mandamus
**Answer:** **C) Prohibition**
**Explanation:** Prohibition is preventive in nature and restrains a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction.
---
### Q340. Which writ is generally issued to quash the order of an inferior court or tribunal acting without jurisdiction or in violation of law?
A) Prohibition
B) Certiorari
C) Mandamus
D) Quo Warranto
**Answer:** **B) Certiorari**
**Explanation:** Certiorari is corrective in nature and is issued after the lower authority has acted.
---
### Q341. Which writ questions the legal authority of a person holding a public office?
A) Mandamus
B) Habeas Corpus
C) Quo Warranto
D) Certiorari
**Answer:** **C) Quo Warranto**
**Explanation:** Quo Warranto enables the Court to examine whether a person is legally entitled to hold a public office.
---
### Q342. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) primarily aims to:
A) Protect only government interests
B) Enable access to justice for disadvantaged or affected sections of society
C) Resolve disputes between political parties only
D) Increase the jurisdiction of Parliament
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** PIL broadened access to justice by relaxing the traditional rule of locus standi in appropriate cases involving public interest.
---
### Q343. Which Judge is widely associated with the development of Public Interest Litigation in India?
A) Justice M. Hidayatullah
B) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
C) Justice H. J. Kania
D) Justice S. R. Das
**Answer:** **B) Justice P. N. Bhagwati**
**Explanation:** Justice P. N. Bhagwati, along with Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer, played a significant role in developing PIL jurisprudence in India.
---
### Q344. Which of the following is a key objective of Public Interest Litigation?
A) Protecting only private contractual rights
B) Securing justice for marginalized and disadvantaged groups
C) Increasing taxation
D) Regulating parliamentary debates
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** PIL seeks to protect constitutional and legal rights of those who may be unable to approach the courts themselves.
---
### Q345. The power of the Supreme Court to punish for contempt flows primarily from:
A) Article 129
B) Article 143
C) Article 145
D) Article 148
**Answer:** **A) Article 129**
**Explanation:** As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has the constitutional power to punish for contempt of itself.
---
### Q346. Which of the following is an important feature ensuring the independence of the judiciary?
A) Fixed tenure and security of office for Judges, subject to constitutional removal procedures
B) Executive control over judicial decisions
C) Annual election of Judges
D) Parliamentary control over judgments
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Security of tenure and removal only through the constitutional process help preserve judicial independence.
---
### Q347. Supreme Court Judges can be removed only by:
A) The President acting independently
B) Impeachment by Parliament on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, followed by the President's order
C) The Prime Minister
D) The Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution provides a rigorous removal process to safeguard judicial independence.
---
### Q348. Which of the following is **NOT** generally regarded as a feature supporting judicial independence?
A) Security of tenure
B) Salaries charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
C) Power of the Executive to remove Judges at will
D) Fixed service conditions
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Judges cannot be removed at the will of the Executive; constitutional safeguards protect their independence.
---
### Q349. Which landmark case established the Basic Structure Doctrine?
A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** In **Kesavananda Bharati (1973)**, the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot alter the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
---
### Q350. Which statement best describes the constitutional role of the Supreme Court of India?
A) It functions only as an appellate court.
B) It is the guardian of the Constitution, protector of Fundamental Rights, and the highest constitutional court with original, appellate, advisory, review, and writ jurisdictions.
C) It performs only advisory functions.
D) It supervises only the High Courts administratively.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court occupies a central position in India's constitutional framework. It interprets the Constitution, protects Fundamental Rights, settles federal disputes, exercises appellate and advisory jurisdiction, and ensures the rule of law through judicial review.
### Q351. Which Part of the Constitution deals with the High Courts in the States?
A) Part IV
B) Part V
C) Part VI
D) Part VII
**Answer:** **C) Part VI**
**Explanation:** Chapter V of Part VI (Articles 214–231) deals with the High Courts in the States.
---
### Q352. Which Article provides that there shall be a High Court for each State?
A) Article 213
B) Article 214
C) Article 215
D) Article 216
**Answer:** **B) Article 214**
**Explanation:** Article 214 provides that there shall be a High Court for each State. Parliament may also establish a common High Court for two or more States or for States and Union Territories.
---
### Q353. Which Article declares every High Court to be a Court of Record?
A) Article 214
B) Article 215
C) Article 216
D) Article 217
**Answer:** **B) Article 215**
**Explanation:** Every High Court is a Court of Record and has the power to punish for contempt of itself.
---
### Q354. The composition of a High Court is provided under:
A) Article 215
B) Article 216
C) Article 217
D) Article 218
**Answer:** **B) Article 216**
**Explanation:** Article 216 provides that every High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other Judges as the President may deem necessary.
---
### Q355. Judges of a High Court are appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) Governor
C) President of India
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **C) President of India**
**Explanation:** Under Article 217, High Court Judges are appointed by the President after the constitutionally prescribed consultation process.
---
### Q356. Which of the following is a constitutional qualification for appointment as a High Court Judge?
A) Minimum age of 45 years
B) Citizen of India
C) At least five years as a Member of Parliament
D) Graduate in Law only
**Answer:** **B) Citizen of India**
**Explanation:** A High Court Judge must be an Indian citizen and satisfy the qualifications laid down in Article 217, such as specified judicial or advocacy experience.
---
### Q357. A person is qualified to be appointed as a High Court Judge if they have been an advocate of a High Court for at least:
A) Five years
B) Seven years
C) Ten years
D) Twelve years
**Answer:** **C) Ten years**
**Explanation:** One of the qualifications is at least ten years' practice as an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such courts in succession.
---
### Q358. The retirement age of a High Court Judge is:
A) 60 years
B) 62 years
C) 65 years
D) 68 years
**Answer:** **B) 62 years**
**Explanation:** High Court Judges retire at the age of 62 years.
---
### Q359. Which Article deals with additional and acting Judges of a High Court?
A) Article 223
B) Article 224
C) Article 225
D) Article 226
**Answer:** **B) Article 224**
**Explanation:** Article 224 provides for the appointment of additional and acting Judges to manage temporary increases in workload or vacancies.
---
### Q360. An Acting Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed under:
A) Article 221
B) Article 222
C) Article 223
D) Article 224
**Answer:** **C) Article 223**
**Explanation:** Where the office of Chief Justice is vacant or the Chief Justice is unable to perform duties, the President may appoint an Acting Chief Justice.
---
### Q361. Which Article empowers the President to transfer a High Court Judge from one High Court to another?
A) Article 221
B) Article 222
C) Article 223
D) Article 224
**Answer:** **B) Article 222**
**Explanation:** Transfers are made by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
---
### Q362. Salaries and allowances of High Court Judges are provided under:
A) Article 220
B) Article 221
C) Article 222
D) Article 223
**Answer:** **B) Article 221**
**Explanation:** Article 221 deals with the salaries, allowances, leave, and pension of High Court Judges.
---
### Q363. Which Article deals with the jurisdiction of existing High Courts?
A) Article 224
B) Article 225
C) Article 226
D) Article 227
**Answer:** **B) Article 225**
**Explanation:** Article 225 preserves the jurisdiction of existing High Courts subject to the Constitution and laws made by Parliament.
---
### Q364. Which Article empowers High Courts to issue writs?
A) Article 32
B) Article 226
C) Article 227
D) Article 228
**Answer:** **B) Article 226**
**Explanation:** High Courts may issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also **for any other purpose** within their jurisdiction.
---
### Q365. Compared with Article 32, the writ jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226 is:
A) Narrower
B) Wider
C) Exactly the same
D) Limited to civil matters
**Answer:** **B) Wider**
**Explanation:** Article 226 extends beyond Fundamental Rights, allowing High Courts to issue writs for other legal rights as well.
---
### Q366. Which of the following writs can a High Court issue under Article 226?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Mandamus
C) Certiorari, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** High Courts have the power to issue all five constitutional writs.
---
### Q367. Which Article gives every High Court the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction (subject to constitutional exceptions)?
A) Article 226
B) Article 227
C) Article 228
D) Article 229
**Answer:** **B) Article 227**
**Explanation:** Article 227 confers supervisory jurisdiction over subordinate courts and tribunals within the High Court's territory, except where excluded by the Constitution.
---
### Q368. Which Article deals with the transfer of certain constitutional cases from subordinate courts to the High Court?
A) Article 227
B) Article 228
C) Article 229
D) Article 230
**Answer:** **B) Article 228**
**Explanation:** If a substantial constitutional question arises, the High Court may withdraw the case for its own decision.
---
### Q369. Which Article deals with the officers and servants of a High Court?
A) Article 228
B) Article 229
C) Article 230
D) Article 231
**Answer:** **B) Article 229**
**Explanation:** Article 229 provides for the appointment and service conditions of High Court staff.
---
### Q370. Parliament may extend or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court over a Union Territory under:
A) Article 229
B) Article 230
C) Article 231
D) Article 232
**Answer:** **B) Article 230**
**Explanation:** Article 230 enables Parliament to modify High Court jurisdiction with respect to Union Territories.
---
### Q371. Which Article provides for a common High Court for two or more States?
A) Article 230
B) Article 231
C) Article 232
D) Article 233
**Answer:** **B) Article 231**
**Explanation:** Parliament may establish a common High Court for multiple States or for States and Union Territories.
---
### Q372. High Court Judges can be removed by:
A) Governor of the State
B) President alone
C) The same constitutional process applicable to Supreme Court Judges
D) State Legislature
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** High Court Judges are removed through the constitutional process applicable to Supreme Court Judges, on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
---
### Q373. Which court has wider writ jurisdiction?
A) Supreme Court only
B) High Court only
C) Both have identical jurisdiction
D) District Court
**Answer:** **B) High Court only**
**Explanation:** High Courts can issue writs for Fundamental Rights as well as other legal rights, making Article 226 broader in scope than Article 32.
---
### Q374. The territorial jurisdiction of a High Court is generally determined by:
A) The residence of the President
B) The territory over which the High Court exercises authority under the Constitution and applicable law
C) The number of districts in the State
D) The decision of the Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** A High Court exercises jurisdiction over the territory assigned to it by the Constitution and parliamentary law.
---
### Q375. Which statement best describes the constitutional role of the High Courts?
A) They hear only criminal appeals.
B) They are the highest constitutional courts within the States, exercising constitutional, civil, criminal, supervisory, and writ jurisdiction.
C) They function only under the directions of the Supreme Court.
D) They have no power to review executive action.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** High Courts are constitutional courts with wide jurisdiction, including writ jurisdiction, judicial review, appellate powers, and superintendence over subordinate courts, making them central to the administration of justice in the States.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 4 – Part 4 (Questions 376–400)**
**Topic:** Subordinate Judiciary, Tribunals & Judicial Administration (Articles 233–237 & Related Provisions)
---
### Q376. Which Chapter of Part VI deals with the Subordinate Courts?
A) Chapter III
B) Chapter IV
C) Chapter V
D) Chapter VI
**Answer:** **D) Chapter VI**
**Explanation:** Chapter VI of Part VI (Articles 233–237) deals with the Subordinate Judiciary.
---
### Q377. Which Article deals with the appointment of District Judges?
A) Article 232
B) Article 233
C) Article 234
D) Article 235
**Answer:** **B) Article 233**
**Explanation:** District Judges are appointed by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction over the State.
---
### Q378. District Judges are appointed by the:
A) President of India
B) Governor of the State
C) Chief Justice of India
D) State Public Service Commission
**Answer:** **B) Governor of the State**
**Explanation:** Article 233 vests the appointing authority in the Governor, with mandatory consultation with the High Court.
---
### Q379. Which authority must be consulted before appointing a District Judge?
A) Prime Minister
B) High Court
C) State Cabinet
D) Union Public Service Commission
**Answer:** **B) High Court**
**Explanation:** Consultation with the High Court is a constitutional requirement under Article 233.
---
### Q380. Which Article deals with recruitment of persons other than District Judges to the Judicial Service?
A) Article 233
B) Article 234
C) Article 235
D) Article 236
**Answer:** **B) Article 234**
**Explanation:** Recruitment to the judicial service (other than District Judges) is made according to rules framed after consultation with the State Public Service Commission and the High Court.
---
### Q381. Control over District Courts and subordinate courts is vested in the:
A) Governor
B) State Government
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **C) High Court**
**Explanation:** Article 235 vests control over subordinate courts in the High Court, reinforcing judicial independence.
---
### Q382. Which Article defines the expression "District Judge"?
A) Article 235
B) Article 236
C) Article 237
D) Article 238
**Answer:** **B) Article 236**
**Explanation:** Article 236 defines "District Judge" and "Judicial Service."
---
### Q383. Which Article enables the application of provisions relating to the Subordinate Judiciary to certain classes of Magistrates?
A) Article 235
B) Article 236
C) Article 237
D) Article 239
**Answer:** **C) Article 237**
**Explanation:** Article 237 allows the Governor to apply these provisions to specified classes of Magistrates by public notification.
---
### Q384. Which constitutional principle best protects the independence of the Subordinate Judiciary?
A) Executive control over judicial postings
B) High Court's control under Article 235
C) Parliamentary supervision
D) Cabinet approval of judgments
**Answer:** **B) High Court's control under Article 235**
**Explanation:** Vesting administrative control in the High Court helps safeguard judicial independence.
---
### Q385. Which of the following is **NOT** ordinarily a function of the High Court under Article 235?
A) Posting of judicial officers
B) Promotion of judicial officers
C) Administrative control over subordinate courts
D) Appointment of the President of India
**Answer:** **D) Appointment of the President of India**
**Explanation:** The High Court exercises administrative control over the subordinate judiciary but has no role in presidential appointments.
---
### Q386. Tribunals were given constitutional recognition by the:
A) 24th Constitutional Amendment
B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
C) 44th Constitutional Amendment
D) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 42nd Amendment inserted **Part XIV-A** relating to Tribunals.
---
### Q387. Part XIV-A of the Constitution deals with:
A) Elections
B) Tribunals
C) Emergency Provisions
D) Municipalities
**Answer:** **B) Tribunals**
**Explanation:** Part XIV-A contains Articles 323A and 323B dealing with Administrative and other Tribunals.
---
### Q388. Which Article provides for Administrative Tribunals?
A) Article 322
B) Article 323A
C) Article 323B
D) Article 324
**Answer:** **B) Article 323A**
**Explanation:** Article 323A empowers Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals for service matters.
---
### Q389. Which Article deals with Tribunals for other specified matters?
A) Article 323A
B) Article 323B
C) Article 324
D) Article 325
**Answer:** **B) Article 323B**
**Explanation:** Article 323B permits appropriate legislatures to establish tribunals for specified matters such as taxation, labour disputes, and land reforms.
---
### Q390. Administrative Tribunals primarily deal with disputes relating to:
A) Criminal offences
B) Service matters of public servants
C) Family disputes
D) Election petitions
**Answer:** **B) Service matters of public servants**
**Explanation:** Administrative Tribunals adjudicate disputes concerning recruitment and conditions of service of public employees.
---
### Q391. Which landmark case held that judicial review by the High Courts and the Supreme Court is part of the Basic Structure and cannot be excluded even in relation to tribunal decisions?
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
**Answer:** **B) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India**
**Explanation:** In **L. Chandra Kumar (1997)**, the Supreme Court held that decisions of tribunals remain subject to judicial review by High Courts under Articles 226/227 and by the Supreme Court.
---
### Q392. Which institution is regarded as the highest court in the Indian judicial system?
A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) National Green Tribunal
D) District Court
**Answer:** **B) Supreme Court**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court is the apex judicial authority under the Constitution.
---
### Q393. The Subordinate Judiciary functions under the administrative control of the:
A) State Government
B) High Court
C) Parliament
D) Governor
**Answer:** **B) High Court**
**Explanation:** Article 235 ensures that the High Court exercises control over the subordinate judiciary.
---
### Q394. Which of the following is **NOT** a constitutional court?
A) Supreme Court
B) High Court
C) District Court
D) None of the above
**Answer:** **C) District Court**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court and High Courts are constitutional courts. District Courts are established under statutory and constitutional provisions but are not themselves constitutional courts in the same sense.
---
### Q395. The primary objective of creating tribunals is to:
A) Replace all courts
B) Provide specialized and speedy adjudication in specified fields
C) Eliminate judicial review
D) Reduce the powers of Parliament
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Tribunals are intended to provide expertise and quicker resolution in specialized areas of law.
---
### Q396. Which of the following is an example of a specialized tribunal established by Parliament under statutory law?
A) National Green Tribunal
B) Lok Sabha
C) Rajya Sabha
D) Election Commission
**Answer:** **A) National Green Tribunal**
**Explanation:** The National Green Tribunal is a specialized statutory tribunal dealing with environmental matters.
---
### Q397. Which constitutional principle requires that judges decide cases without improper influence from the Executive or Legislature?
A) Collective Responsibility
B) Judicial Independence
C) Parliamentary Sovereignty
D) Cabinet Responsibility
**Answer:** **B) Judicial Independence**
**Explanation:** Judicial independence is a cornerstone of the Constitution and an essential element of the Rule of Law.
---
### Q398. Which of the following strengthens judicial independence?
A) Security of tenure
B) Fixed service conditions
C) Administrative control of High Courts over subordinate courts
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** Together, these constitutional safeguards help maintain an impartial and independent judiciary.
---
### Q399. Which statement correctly describes the relationship between Tribunals and Constitutional Courts?
A) Tribunal decisions are always final and cannot be reviewed.
B) Tribunal decisions are subject to judicial review by constitutional courts in accordance with the Constitution.
C) Tribunals can overrule Supreme Court judgments.
D) High Courts function under Tribunals.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Judicial review by High Courts and the Supreme Court remains available in accordance with constitutional principles and judicial precedents.
---
### Q400. Which statement best describes the Indian judicial system?
A) It consists only of the Supreme Court.
B) It follows a single integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the apex, followed by High Courts and subordinate courts.
C) It has separate federal and state court systems like the United States.
D) It consists only of tribunals.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** India has a **single integrated judiciary**. The Supreme Court stands at the apex, followed by the High Courts in the States and Union Territories, and then the subordinate courts. This integrated structure promotes uniformity in the administration of justice across the country.
Excellent! Let's begin **Volume 5 – Part 1 (Questions 401–425)**.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 5 – Part 1 (Questions 401–425)**
**Topic:** Centre–State Relations – Legislative Relations (Articles 245–255)
---
### Q401. Which Part of the Constitution deals with relations between the Union and the States?
A) Part X
B) Part XI
C) Part XII
D) Part XIII
**Answer:** **B) Part XI**
**Explanation:** Part XI (Articles 245–263) deals with the legislative and administrative relations between the Union and the States.
---
### Q402. Which Article defines the extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures?
A) Article 244
B) Article 245
C) Article 246
D) Article 247
**Answer:** **B) Article 245**
**Explanation:** Article 245 specifies the territorial extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures.
---
### Q403. Which Article distributes legislative subjects between the Union and the States?
A) Article 245
B) Article 246
C) Article 247
D) Article 248
**Answer:** **B) Article 246**
**Explanation:** Article 246 allocates legislative powers through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
---
### Q404. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains:
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Lists dividing legislative powers
C) Official Languages
D) Forms of Oaths
**Answer:** **B) Lists dividing legislative powers**
**Explanation:** The Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
---
### Q405. Which List contains subjects on which only Parliament can ordinarily legislate?
A) State List
B) Concurrent List
C) Union List
D) Residuary List
**Answer:** **C) Union List**
**Explanation:** Matters of national importance, such as defence, foreign affairs, and currency, are placed in the Union List.
---
### Q406. Which List contains subjects on which State Legislatures ordinarily have exclusive power to legislate?
A) Union List
B) State List
C) Concurrent List
D) Residuary List
**Answer:** **B) State List**
**Explanation:** Subjects such as police, public order, and public health are generally included in the State List.
---
### Q407. Which List contains subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate?
A) Union List
B) State List
C) Concurrent List
D) Residuary List
**Answer:** **C) Concurrent List**
**Explanation:** Education, forests, marriage and divorce, and criminal law are examples of subjects in the Concurrent List.
---
### Q408. In case of inconsistency between a Central law and a State law on a Concurrent List subject, which law generally prevails?
A) State law
B) Central law
C) Governor's order
D) High Court decision
**Answer:** **B) Central law**
**Explanation:** Under Article 254, a Central law generally prevails over an inconsistent State law on a Concurrent List subject, subject to constitutional exceptions.
---
### Q409. Which Article deals with residuary legislative powers?
A) Article 247
B) Article 248
C) Article 249
D) Article 250
**Answer:** **B) Article 248**
**Explanation:** Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on matters not enumerated in any of the three lists.
---
### Q410. Residuary powers in India are vested in the:
A) States
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) Governors
**Answer:** **B) Parliament**
**Explanation:** Unlike some federations, India vests residuary legislative powers in Parliament.
---
### Q411. Parliament may legislate on a State List subject in the national interest if authorized by:
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) President
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) Rajya Sabha**
**Explanation:** Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may authorize Parliament by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
---
### Q412. Which Article empowers Parliament to legislate on State List matters in the national interest?
A) Article 248
B) Article 249
C) Article 250
D) Article 251
**Answer:** **B) Article 249**
**Explanation:** Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects when the Rajya Sabha passes the required resolution.
---
### Q413. Parliament can legislate on State List subjects during:
A) Financial Emergency only
B) National Emergency
C) President's Rule only
D) Governor's Rule
**Answer:** **B) National Emergency**
**Explanation:** Article 250 authorizes Parliament to legislate on State List matters while a National Emergency is in operation.
---
### Q414. Which Article provides for Parliament's legislative power during a National Emergency?
A) Article 249
B) Article 250
C) Article 251
D) Article 252
**Answer:** **B) Article 250**
**Explanation:** Such laws continue for a limited period after the Emergency ceases, as provided by the Constitution.
---
### Q415. Parliament may legislate for two or more States on a State List subject if:
A) The President so directs
B) Those State Legislatures pass resolutions requesting Parliament to do so
C) The Supreme Court approves
D) The Election Commission recommends it
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Under Article 252, Parliament may legislate for consenting States on State List matters.
---
### Q416. Which Article deals with legislation for two or more States by consent?
A) Article 251
B) Article 252
C) Article 253
D) Article 254
**Answer:** **B) Article 252**
**Explanation:** Other States may subsequently adopt such a law by passing similar resolutions.
---
### Q417. Parliament may legislate on any subject, including those in the State List, for implementing international treaties under:
A) Article 252
B) Article 253
C) Article 254
D) Article 255
**Answer:** **B) Article 253**
**Explanation:** Article 253 empowers Parliament to implement international agreements and treaties.
---
### Q418. Which Article gives Parliament power to implement international agreements?
A) Article 252
B) Article 253
C) Article 254
D) Article 255
**Answer:** **B) Article 253**
**Explanation:** This power extends even to matters otherwise falling within the State List.
---
### Q419. Which Article deals with inconsistency between Central and State laws on Concurrent List subjects?
A) Article 252
B) Article 253
C) Article 254
D) Article 255
**Answer:** **C) Article 254**
**Explanation:** Article 254 lays down the rules governing repugnancy between Central and State laws.
---
### Q420. A State law inconsistent with a Central law on a Concurrent List subject may prevail in that State if:
A) Approved by the Supreme Court
B) It has received the President's assent under the Constitution, subject to Parliament's overriding power
C) Passed unanimously by the State Legislature
D) Recommended by the Governor alone
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Article 254(2) permits such a State law to operate after Presidential assent, though Parliament retains the power to override it later.
---
### Q421. Which Article states that procedural requirements regarding prior recommendations or sanctions do not invalidate an Act merely because they were not complied with in every case specified?
A) Article 253
B) Article 254
C) Article 255
D) Article 256
**Answer:** **C) Article 255**
**Explanation:** Article 255 addresses the effect of certain procedural requirements relating to recommendations and previous sanctions.
---
### Q422. Which of the following is a feature of India's federal system?
A) Complete legislative equality between the Union and the States
B) Strong Centre with constitutionally distributed powers
C) Independent State Constitutions in all respects
D) Separate federal and state citizenship
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** India follows a federal system with a strong Union, reflected in the constitutional distribution of legislative powers.
---
### Q423. Which constitutional mechanism enables Parliament to legislate on State subjects in exceptional situations?
A) Articles 249, 250, 252, and 253
B) Article 32 only
C) Article 368 only
D) Article 356 only
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** These Articles collectively provide exceptional circumstances in which Parliament may legislate on State List matters.
---
### Q424. The doctrine of "repugnancy" is primarily associated with:
A) Union List
B) State List
C) Concurrent List
D) Residuary Powers
**Answer:** **C) Concurrent List**
**Explanation:** Repugnancy arises when a Central and a State law on a Concurrent List subject are inconsistent with each other.
---
### Q425. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional scheme of legislative relations between the Union and the States?
A) States possess unlimited legislative powers.
B) Parliament possesses unlimited legislative powers.
C) The Constitution distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States while providing specific situations in which Parliament may legislate on State subjects.
D) The Governor determines the legislative powers of Parliament.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution establishes a federal distribution of legislative powers through the Seventh Schedule while also providing mechanisms to maintain national unity and meet exceptional situations.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 5 – Part 2 (Questions 426–450)**
**Topic:** Centre–State Relations – Administrative Relations (Articles 256–263)
---
### Q426. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Administrative Relations between the Union and the States?
A) Part X
B) Part XI (Chapter II)
C) Part XII
D) Part XIII
**Answer:** **B) Part XI (Chapter II)**
**Explanation:** Chapter II of Part XI (Articles 256–263) deals with the administrative relations between the Union and the States.
---
### Q427. Which Article obligates every State to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament?
A) Article 255
B) Article 256
C) Article 257
D) Article 258
**Answer:** **B) Article 256**
**Explanation:** Article 256 requires every State to exercise its executive power in a manner that ensures compliance with laws made by Parliament and existing laws applicable to the State.
---
### Q428. Under Article 256, the Union Government may:
A) Dissolve the State Legislature directly
B) Issue directions to a State necessary for compliance with Parliamentary laws
C) Remove the Governor
D) Amend the State Constitution
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to States for proper implementation of Parliamentary laws.
---
### Q429. Which Article empowers the Union to issue directions to States regarding the exercise of executive power?
A) Article 256
B) Article 257
C) Article 258
D) Article 259
**Answer:** **B) Article 257**
**Explanation:** Article 257 provides that the executive power of every State shall not impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union.
---
### Q430. The executive power of a State shall be exercised so as not to impede the executive power of the:
A) Judiciary
B) Parliament
C) Union
D) Governor
**Answer:** **C) Union**
**Explanation:** This constitutional principle is laid down in Article 257.
---
### Q431. Which Article enables the Union Government to entrust functions to a State Government with its consent?
A) Article 257
B) Article 258
C) Article 258A
D) Article 259
**Answer:** **B) Article 258**
**Explanation:** Under Article 258, the President may entrust Union functions to a State Government with the State's consent.
---
### Q432. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 258A?
A) 7th Constitutional Amendment
B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
C) 44th Constitutional Amendment
D) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **A) 7th Constitutional Amendment**
**Explanation:** Article 258A, inserted by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, enables a State to entrust functions to the Union with the consent of the Government of India.
---
### Q433. Article 258A allows:
A) Parliament to legislate on State subjects
B) A State Government to entrust functions to the Union with consent
C) Governors to legislate by ordinance
D) High Courts to transfer cases
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Article 258A promotes administrative cooperation between the Union and the States.
---
### Q434. Which Article originally dealt with armed forces in Part XI but has since become inoperative following constitutional changes?
A) Article 259
B) Article 260
C) Article 261
D) Article 262
**Answer:** **A) Article 259**
**Explanation:** Article 259 became inoperative following the constitutional reorganization of territories. It is of historical significance for constitutional study.
---
### Q435. Which Article empowers the Government of India to undertake functions relating to territories outside India by agreement?
A) Article 260
B) Article 261
C) Article 262
D) Article 263
**Answer:** **A) Article 260**
**Explanation:** Article 260 permits India to undertake executive, legislative, or judicial functions in territories outside India under agreements with the concerned foreign government.
---
### Q436. Which Article deals with Full Faith and Credit?
A) Article 260
B) Article 261
C) Article 262
D) Article 263
**Answer:** **B) Article 261**
**Explanation:** Article 261 provides that full faith and credit shall be given throughout India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and the States.
---
### Q437. Full Faith and Credit means:
A) Parliament controls all courts
B) Public acts, records, and judicial proceedings are recognized throughout India
C) Governors supervise High Courts
D) States cannot legislate
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The provision promotes legal uniformity and mutual recognition across the country.
---
### Q438. Which Article deals with adjudication of disputes relating to inter-State rivers?
A) Article 261
B) Article 262
C) Article 263
D) Article 264
**Answer:** **B) Article 262**
**Explanation:** Parliament may provide by law for adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers and river valleys.
---
### Q439. Parliament may, under Article 262, provide that:
A) High Courts alone decide river disputes
B) Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction over specified river-water disputes
C) Governors decide river disputes
D) Parliament itself adjudicates every river dispute
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Parliament has exercised this power through legislation relating to inter-State river water disputes.
---
### Q440. Which Article provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council?
A) Article 261
B) Article 262
C) Article 263
D) Article 264
**Answer:** **C) Article 263**
**Explanation:** Article 263 authorizes the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears necessary in the public interest.
---
### Q441. The primary objective of the Inter-State Council is to:
A) Conduct elections
B) Promote coordination and cooperation between the Union and the States
C) Appoint Governors
D) Amend the Constitution
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Council serves as a forum for discussion, coordination, and policy recommendations on matters of common interest.
---
### Q442. The Inter-State Council is established by the:
A) Parliament
B) President
C) Prime Minister
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) President**
**Explanation:** The President establishes the Council under Article 263 when considered necessary in the public interest.
---
### Q443. Which Commission recommended the establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council to strengthen cooperative federalism?
A) Balwant Rai Mehta Commission
B) Sarkaria Commission
C) Mandal Commission
D) Punchhi Commission
**Answer:** **B) Sarkaria Commission**
**Explanation:** The Sarkaria Commission strongly recommended activating the Inter-State Council as an institutional mechanism for Centre–State coordination.
---
### Q444. Which principle best reflects the purpose of Articles 256–263?
A) Judicial supremacy
B) Cooperative federalism
C) Presidential government
D) Separation of religion and State
**Answer:** **B) Cooperative federalism**
**Explanation:** These Articles aim to ensure coordination and harmonious functioning between the Union and the States.
---
### Q445. Which constitutional provision promotes uniform recognition of judicial decisions across India?
A) Article 258
B) Article 260
C) Article 261
D) Article 263
**Answer:** **C) Article 261**
**Explanation:** Article 261 ensures nationwide recognition of judicial proceedings and public records.
---
### Q446. Administrative relations under the Constitution primarily concern:
A) Distribution of legislative subjects
B) Exercise of executive powers by the Union and the States
C) Appointment of judges only
D) Election procedures
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Administrative relations regulate the interaction between the executive authorities of the Union and the States.
---
### Q447. Which of the following is **NOT** dealt with in Articles 256–263?
A) Union directions to States
B) Inter-State Council
C) Inter-State River Water Disputes
D) Citizenship
**Answer:** **D) Citizenship**
**Explanation:** Citizenship is dealt with separately under Part II of the Constitution.
---
### Q448. Which statement correctly describes the Inter-State Council?
A) It is a constitutional body whose establishment is authorized by Article 263.
B) It is a constitutional court.
C) It is part of Parliament.
D) It replaces the Finance Commission.
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Article 263 provides the constitutional basis for the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
---
### Q449. The constitutional provisions relating to administrative relations primarily seek to:
A) Eliminate the role of States
B) Ensure coordination between different levels of government
C) Increase judicial powers
D) Restrict legislative powers of Parliament
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Administrative relations are designed to facilitate effective governance in a federal system.
---
### Q450. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy of administrative relations?
A) States function independently without constitutional coordination.
B) The Union exercises unlimited executive power over States.
C) The Constitution balances State autonomy with national coordination through mechanisms of cooperation, consultation, and constitutional direction.
D) Administrative relations apply only during Emergencies.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** India's Constitution adopts a model of **cooperative federalism**, balancing national unity with State autonomy. Articles 256–263 provide constitutional mechanisms for coordination, consultation, and effective administration while preserving the federal structure.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 5 – Part 3 (Questions 451–475)**
**Topic:** Centre–State Financial Relations, Finance Commission & GST Council (Articles 264–293, 279A)
---
### Q451. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits?
A) Part XI
B) Part XII
C) Part XIII
D) Part XIV
**Answer:** **B) Part XII**
**Explanation:** Part XII (Articles 264–300A) deals with financial relations, taxation, government property, contracts, and legal proceedings involving the Union and the States.
---
### Q452. Which Article defines the interpretation of terms relating to finance?
A) Article 264
B) Article 265
C) Article 266
D) Article 267
**Answer:** **A) Article 264**
**Explanation:** Article 264 contains definitions applicable to Part XII.
---
### Q453. Which Article states that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law?
A) Article 264
B) Article 265
C) Article 266
D) Article 267
**Answer:** **B) Article 265**
**Explanation:** Article 265 embodies a fundamental constitutional principle ensuring that taxation must have legal authority.
---
### Q454. The principle "No taxation without authority of law" is contained in:
A) Article 19
B) Article 32
C) Article 265
D) Article 300A
**Answer:** **C) Article 265**
**Explanation:** Taxes cannot be imposed or collected merely by executive action; statutory authority is essential.
---
### Q455. Which Article provides for the Consolidated Fund of India?
A) Article 265
B) Article 266
C) Article 267
D) Article 268
**Answer:** **B) Article 266**
**Explanation:** Article 266 establishes the Consolidated Fund, Public Account, and similar funds for the States.
---
### Q456. All revenues received by the Government of India are credited to the:
A) Contingency Fund
B) Public Account
C) Consolidated Fund of India
D) Finance Commission Fund
**Answer:** **C) Consolidated Fund of India**
**Explanation:** Taxes, non-tax revenues, loans received, and loan recoveries are credited to the Consolidated Fund unless the Constitution provides otherwise.
---
### Q457. Which Fund is placed at the disposal of the President to meet unforeseen expenditure?
A) Public Account
B) Consolidated Fund
C) Contingency Fund of India
D) National Development Fund
**Answer:** **C) Contingency Fund of India**
**Explanation:** Article 267 provides for the Contingency Fund to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure pending parliamentary authorization.
---
### Q458. Which Article provides for the Contingency Fund of India?
A) Article 266
B) Article 267
C) Article 268
D) Article 269
**Answer:** **B) Article 267**
**Explanation:** Parliament may establish the Contingency Fund of India by law.
---
### Q459. Taxes levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States are dealt with under:
A) Article 268
B) Article 269
C) Article 270
D) Article 271
**Answer:** **A) Article 268**
**Explanation:** Article 268 provides for specified duties levied by the Union but assigned to the States.
---
### Q460. Taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States are dealt with under:
A) Article 268
B) Article 269
C) Article 270
D) Article 271
**Answer:** **B) Article 269**
**Explanation:** Article 269 provides for taxes that are levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States in accordance with constitutional provisions.
---
### Q461. Which Article provides for taxes levied and collected by the Union and distributed between the Union and the States?
A) Article 269
B) Article 270
C) Article 271
D) Article 272
**Answer:** **B) Article 270**
**Explanation:** Article 270 governs the distribution of the divisible pool of taxes between the Union and the States.
---
### Q462. Which constitutional body recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States?
A) Election Commission
B) GST Council
C) Finance Commission
D) NITI Aayog
**Answer:** **C) Finance Commission**
**Explanation:** The Finance Commission recommends the vertical and horizontal distribution of tax revenues.
---
### Q463. Which Article provides for the Finance Commission?
A) Article 278
B) Article 279
C) Article 280
D) Article 281
**Answer:** **C) Article 280**
**Explanation:** Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission at prescribed intervals.
---
### Q464. The Finance Commission is constituted by the:
A) Parliament
B) President of India
C) Prime Minister
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President appoints the Chairperson and other members of the Finance Commission.
---
### Q465. The Finance Commission is normally constituted every:
A) Three years
B) Four years
C) Five years
D) Six years
**Answer:** **C) Five years**
**Explanation:** Article 280 requires constitution at intervals of five years or earlier if considered necessary.
---
### Q466. Which of the following is **NOT** a primary function of the Finance Commission?
A) Distribution of tax revenues
B) Recommending grants-in-aid
C) Conducting elections
D) Advising on financial matters referred by the President
**Answer:** **C) Conducting elections**
**Explanation:** Elections are conducted by the Election Commission, not the Finance Commission.
---
### Q467. Grants-in-aid to States are provided under:
A) Article 274
B) Article 275
C) Article 276
D) Article 277
**Answer:** **B) Article 275**
**Explanation:** Article 275 authorizes Parliament to provide grants-in-aid to States in need of assistance.
---
### Q468. Which Article deals with taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments?
A) Article 275
B) Article 276
C) Article 277
D) Article 278
**Answer:** **B) Article 276**
**Explanation:** Article 276 permits States and local authorities to levy taxes on professions, subject to constitutional limitations.
---
### Q469. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
A) 97th Amendment
B) 99th Amendment
C) 101st Amendment
D) 102nd Amendment
**Answer:** **C) 101st Amendment**
**Explanation:** The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 introduced the GST framework.
---
### Q470. Which Article provides for the GST Council?
A) Article 279
B) Article 279A
C) Article 280
D) Article 281
**Answer:** **B) Article 279A**
**Explanation:** Article 279A establishes the GST Council.
---
### Q471. The Chairperson of the GST Council is the:
A) Prime Minister
B) Union Finance Minister
C) President
D) Vice-President
**Answer:** **B) Union Finance Minister**
**Explanation:** The Union Finance Minister serves as the Chairperson of the GST Council.
---
### Q472. Which of the following is a member of the GST Council?
A) Chief Justice of India
B) Union Finance Minister
C) Attorney General
D) Comptroller and Auditor General
**Answer:** **B) Union Finance Minister**
**Explanation:** The Council also includes the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue (or Finance) and Ministers nominated by the States.
---
### Q473. The primary objective of the GST Council is to:
A) Conduct elections
B) Recommend policies relating to Goods and Services Tax
C) Appoint Governors
D) Frame criminal laws
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The GST Council promotes cooperative decision-making on GST rates, exemptions, model laws, and related matters.
---
### Q474. The Finance Commission and GST Council both contribute to:
A) Judicial administration
B) Centre–State financial cooperation
C) Foreign affairs
D) Election management
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Both institutions strengthen fiscal federalism by addressing different aspects of Centre–State financial relations.
---
### Q475. Which statement best describes the constitutional framework of financial relations between the Union and the States?
A) All taxes belong exclusively to the Union.
B) All taxes belong exclusively to the States.
C) The Constitution provides a structured mechanism for taxation, revenue sharing, grants, and fiscal cooperation through institutions such as the Finance Commission and GST Council.
D) Financial relations are governed only by annual budget laws.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Part XII of the Constitution establishes a comprehensive fiscal framework governing taxation, distribution of revenues, grants-in-aid, borrowing, and institutions that promote cooperative fiscal federalism.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 5 – Part 4 (Questions 476–500)**
**Topic:** Emergency Provisions (Part XVIII – Articles 352–360)
---
### Q476. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Emergency Provisions?
A) Part XVI
B) Part XVII
C) Part XVIII
D) Part XIX
**Answer:** **C) Part XVIII**
**Explanation:** Part XVIII (Articles 352–360) contains the constitutional provisions relating to National Emergency, President's Rule, and Financial Emergency.
---
### Q477. Which Article provides for the proclamation of a National Emergency?
A) Article 350
B) Article 352
C) Article 356
D) Article 360
**Answer:** **B) Article 352**
**Explanation:** Article 352 empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency under specified constitutional conditions.
---
### Q478. A National Emergency may be proclaimed on the grounds of:
A) War
B) External aggression
C) Armed rebellion
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** The 44th Constitutional Amendment replaced the earlier ground of "internal disturbance" with **armed rebellion**.
---
### Q479. The expression "armed rebellion" was introduced by the:
A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
B) 44th Constitutional Amendment
C) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
D) 61st Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 44th Constitutional Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 44th Amendment (1978) strengthened safeguards against misuse of Emergency powers.
---
### Q480. A Proclamation of National Emergency is issued by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Parliament
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President issues the Proclamation based on the constitutional procedure and the written advice of the Union Cabinet.
---
### Q481. The President may proclaim a National Emergency only after receiving:
A) Oral advice of the Prime Minister
B) Written advice of the Union Cabinet
C) Recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
D) Resolution of the Rajya Sabha
**Answer:** **B) Written advice of the Union Cabinet**
**Explanation:** This safeguard was introduced by the 44th Amendment to ensure that the decision reflects the collective responsibility of the Cabinet.
---
### Q482. A National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:
A) 14 days
B) One month
C) Two months
D) Six months
**Answer:** **B) One month**
**Explanation:** If not approved within one month, the Proclamation ceases to operate. Where the Lok Sabha is dissolved, special constitutional provisions apply.
---
### Q483. Approval of a National Emergency requires:
A) Simple majority
B) Special majority as prescribed by Article 352
C) Two-thirds of the total membership only
D) Unanimous approval
**Answer:** **B) Special majority as prescribed by Article 352**
**Explanation:** Approval requires a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
---
### Q484. Once approved, a National Emergency continues for:
A) Three months
B) Six months, unless extended in accordance with the Constitution
C) One year only
D) Indefinitely without Parliamentary approval
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Each extension requires parliamentary approval by the prescribed special majority every six months.
---
### Q485. Which Fundamental Right remains protected even during a National Emergency?
A) Article 19
B) Articles 20 and 21
C) Article 22
D) Article 29
**Answer:** **B) Articles 20 and 21**
**Explanation:** After the 44th Amendment, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
---
### Q486. Which Article provides for the suspension of the freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 during certain National Emergencies?
A) Article 356
B) Article 358
C) Article 359
D) Article 360
**Answer:** **B) Article 358**
**Explanation:** Article 358 operates only when the National Emergency is proclaimed on the grounds of **war or external aggression**, not armed rebellion.
---
### Q487. Article 359 empowers the President to:
A) Suspend the Constitution
B) Suspend the enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights by courts, subject to constitutional limitations
C) Dissolve Parliament
D) Remove Governors
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The rights themselves are not suspended; rather, the right to move a court for enforcement of specified rights may be suspended, except as constitutionally protected.
---
### Q488. Which Article deals with President's Rule in States?
A) Article 352
B) Article 355
C) Article 356
D) Article 360
**Answer:** **C) Article 356**
**Explanation:** Article 356 permits the President to assume certain functions of the State Government where constitutional machinery has failed.
---
### Q489. President's Rule is commonly known as:
A) National Emergency
B) Constitutional Emergency
C) State Emergency
D) Financial Emergency
**Answer:** **C) State Emergency**
**Explanation:** Although the Constitution does not use the expression "State Emergency," it is the commonly used term for President's Rule under Article 356.
---
### Q490. Article 356 may be invoked when:
A) Financial resources are exhausted
B) Constitutional machinery in a State has failed
C) Parliament is dissolved
D) A High Court is abolished
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The constitutional trigger is the failure of the constitutional machinery of the State.
---
### Q491. Which Article imposes a duty on the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure governance in accordance with the Constitution?
A) Article 354
B) Article 355
C) Article 356
D) Article 357
**Answer:** **B) Article 355**
**Explanation:** Article 355 underpins the Union's constitutional responsibilities toward the States.
---
### Q492. A Proclamation under Article 356 must be approved by Parliament within:
A) 14 days
B) One month
C) Two months
D) Six months
**Answer:** **C) Two months**
**Explanation:** If not approved by both Houses within two months, the Proclamation ceases to operate, subject to constitutional provisions where the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
---
### Q493. President's Rule ordinarily remains in force for:
A) Six months at a time, unless extended in accordance with the Constitution
B) One year only
C) Three months only
D) Five years
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** It may be extended every six months, subject to constitutional conditions and maximum limits.
---
### Q494. Which landmark judgment laid down important limitations on the misuse of Article 356?
A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
**Answer:** **B) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court held that proclamations under Article 356 are subject to judicial review and reaffirmed federalism as part of the Constitution's Basic Structure.
---
### Q495. Which Article deals with the exercise of legislative powers during President's Rule?
A) Article 356
B) Article 357
C) Article 358
D) Article 359
**Answer:** **B) Article 357**
**Explanation:** Article 357 deals with the exercise of legislative powers when a Proclamation under Article 356 is in operation.
---
### Q496. Which Article provides for Financial Emergency?
A) Article 356
B) Article 357
C) Article 359
D) Article 360
**Answer:** **D) Article 360**
**Explanation:** Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.
---
### Q497. Financial Emergency may be proclaimed if:
A) Parliament is dissolved
B) The financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened
C) Elections cannot be conducted
D) A Governor resigns
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** This is the sole constitutional ground under Article 360.
---
### Q498. Which of the following is a possible consequence of a Financial Emergency?
A) The President may issue directions regarding financial propriety to the States.
B) The salaries and allowances of certain public servants, including judges, may be subject to reduction in accordance with the Constitution.
C) Money Bills may be reserved for the President's consideration.
D) All of the above.
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** Article 360 provides broad financial control measures during a Financial Emergency.
---
### Q499. How many times has a Financial Emergency been proclaimed in India as of 2026?
A) Once
B) Twice
C) Three times
D) Never
**Answer:** **D) Never**
**Explanation:** Although the Constitution provides for Financial Emergency under Article 360, no Financial Emergency has been proclaimed in India to date.
---
### Q500. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy of Emergency Provisions?
A) Emergency powers permanently replace federalism.
B) Emergency provisions enable temporary concentration of powers to safeguard the nation and constitutional governance, while incorporating constitutional checks and parliamentary control.
C) Fundamental Rights automatically cease to exist during every Emergency.
D) Parliament loses all legislative powers during an Emergency.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Part XVIII balances the need to protect national security and constitutional governance with democratic safeguards, parliamentary oversight, judicial review where applicable, and constitutional limitations. Reforms introduced by the **44th Constitutional Amendment** significantly strengthened protections against misuse of Emergency powers.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 6 – Part 1 (Questions 501–525)**
**Topic:** Elections & Election Commission of India (Articles 324–329)
---
### Q501. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Elections?
A) Part XIII
B) Part XIV
C) Part XV
D) Part XVI
**Answer:** **C) Part XV**
**Explanation:** Part XV (Articles 324–329) of the Constitution contains provisions relating to elections in India, including the Election Commission and electoral processes.
---
### Q502. Which Article provides for the Election Commission of India (ECI)?
A) Article 323
B) Article 324
C) Article 325
D) Article 326
**Answer:** **B) Article 324**
**Explanation:** Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India.
---
### Q503. The Election Commission of India is a:
A) Statutory Body
B) Constitutional Body
C) Executive Body
D) Judicial Body
**Answer:** **B) Constitutional Body**
**Explanation:** The Election Commission derives its authority directly from Article 324 of the Constitution, making it a constitutional body.
---
### Q504. The superintendence, direction, and control of elections are vested in the:
A) Parliament
B) President
C) Election Commission of India
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **C) Election Commission of India**
**Explanation:** Article 324 gives the Election Commission complete authority over the conduct of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
---
### Q505. Elections to which of the following are conducted under the supervision of the Election Commission of India?
A) Lok Sabha
B) State Legislative Assemblies
C) President and Vice-President
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** The Election Commission supervises elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
---
### Q506. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Parliament
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** Under Article 324, the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President, subject to applicable law.
---
### Q507. The conditions of service and tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner are determined by:
A) State Legislatures
B) Parliament by law
C) Supreme Court
D) President alone
**Answer:** **B) Parliament by law**
**Explanation:** Article 324 empowers Parliament to regulate the conditions of service and tenure through legislation.
---
### Q508. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office:
A) By the President at any time
B) In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
C) By the Prime Minister
D) By Parliament through a simple majority
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** This safeguard ensures the independence of the Election Commission by protecting the Chief Election Commissioner from arbitrary removal.
---
### Q509. Election Commissioners other than the Chief Election Commissioner may be removed:
A) Only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner
B) By the Governor
C) By the Lok Sabha
D) By the Supreme Court
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Their removal requires the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner, providing institutional independence.
---
### Q510. Which Article provides that there shall be one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency?
A) Article 324
B) Article 325
C) Article 326
D) Article 327
**Answer:** **B) Article 325**
**Explanation:** Article 325 prohibits exclusion from electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex.
---
### Q511. Article 325 prohibits discrimination in electoral rolls on the ground of:
A) Religion
B) Race
C) Caste or Sex
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** Every eligible citizen is entitled to be included in the electoral roll without discrimination on these grounds.
---
### Q512. Elections to the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies are based on:
A) Property qualification
B) Universal Adult Suffrage
C) Educational qualification
D) Tax-paying qualification
**Answer:** **B) Universal Adult Suffrage**
**Explanation:** Article 326 provides for elections based on universal adult suffrage, subject to constitutional qualifications and disqualifications.
---
### Q513. Which Article provides for Universal Adult Suffrage?
A) Article 325
B) Article 326
C) Article 327
D) Article 328
**Answer:** **B) Article 326**
**Explanation:** Article 326 guarantees the right to vote to eligible citizens based on adult suffrage.
---
### Q514. The voting age in India is:
A) 21 years
B) 20 years
C) 18 years
D) 16 years
**Answer:** **C) 18 years**
**Explanation:** The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
---
### Q515. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 61st Amendment
**Answer:** **D) 61st Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 broadened democratic participation by lowering the voting age.
---
### Q516. Parliament has the power to make laws regarding elections under:
A) Article 327
B) Article 328
C) Article 329
D) Article 330
**Answer:** **A) Article 327**
**Explanation:** Article 327 authorizes Parliament to legislate on matters relating to elections to Parliament and State Legislatures.
---
### Q517. State Legislatures may make laws regarding elections under:
A) Article 327
B) Article 328
C) Article 329
D) Article 330
**Answer:** **B) Article 328**
**Explanation:** State Legislatures may legislate on election matters to their own legislatures, subject to parliamentary law.
---
### Q518. Which Article bars interference by courts in electoral matters except through election petitions?
A) Article 327
B) Article 328
C) Article 329
D) Article 330
**Answer:** **C) Article 329**
**Explanation:** Article 329 limits judicial intervention during the election process and provides that election disputes are to be resolved through election petitions after the election.
---
### Q519. Delimitation of constituencies is primarily undertaken to:
A) Increase the number of political parties
B) Ensure fair representation based on population and constitutional principles
C) Appoint Members of Parliament
D) Elect the President
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Delimitation seeks to maintain equitable representation by adjusting constituency boundaries in accordance with law.
---
### Q520. Which principle forms the foundation of democratic elections in India?
A) Hereditary succession
B) Universal Adult Suffrage
C) Property ownership
D) Educational qualification
**Answer:** **B) Universal Adult Suffrage**
**Explanation:** Universal Adult Suffrage ensures that every eligible adult citizen has an equal opportunity to vote.
---
### Q521. Which of the following best reflects the constitutional status of the Election Commission?
A) It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
B) It is an independent constitutional authority entrusted with conducting free and fair elections.
C) It is a committee of Parliament.
D) It functions under the Supreme Court.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution grants the Election Commission institutional independence to safeguard the integrity of the electoral process.
---
### Q522. Which of the following is **NOT** a function of the Election Commission of India?
A) Conducting elections to Parliament
B) Conducting elections to State Legislatures
C) Conducting elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President
D) Conducting elections to all Panchayats and Municipalities
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** Elections to Panchayats and Municipalities are conducted by the respective **State Election Commissions** under Parts IX and IX-A of the Constitution, not by the Election Commission of India.
---
### Q523. The constitutional objective of Article 325 is to ensure:
A) Separate electoral rolls for different communities
B) Equal electoral rights without discrimination on specified grounds
C) Voting rights only for taxpayers
D) Voting rights only for graduates
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Article 325 promotes equality in electoral participation by prohibiting exclusion from electoral rolls on grounds such as religion, race, caste, or sex.
---
### Q524. Which constitutional principle is most closely associated with Article 326?
A) Judicial Review
B) Universal Adult Suffrage
C) Collective Responsibility
D) Federal Supremacy
**Answer:** **B) Universal Adult Suffrage**
**Explanation:** Article 326 embodies the democratic principle that eligible adult citizens should have the right to vote.
---
### Q525. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional framework governing elections in India?
A) Elections are conducted solely under executive discretion.
B) Elections are governed by constitutional provisions that establish an independent Election Commission, universal adult suffrage, and a legal framework to ensure free and fair elections.
C) Elections are supervised exclusively by Parliament.
D) Courts conduct elections under Article 329.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Part XV of the Constitution creates a comprehensive electoral framework by establishing an independent Election Commission, providing for universal adult suffrage, preventing discrimination in electoral rolls, and empowering Parliament to regulate electoral matters while ensuring judicial remedies through election petitions.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 6 – Part 2 (Questions 526–550)**
**Topic:** Political Parties & Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule)
---
### Q526. The Anti-Defection Law was inserted into the Constitution by the:
A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
B) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
C) 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985
D) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
**Answer:** **C) 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985**
**Explanation:** The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 inserted the **Tenth Schedule**, commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law, to curb political defections.
---
### Q527. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in the:
A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Tenth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule contains provisions relating to disqualification of legislators on the ground of defection.
---
### Q528. The principal objective of the Anti-Defection Law is to:
A) Increase the number of political parties
B) Promote political stability by discouraging unprincipled defections
C) Conduct elections
D) Regulate judicial appointments
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The law aims to preserve the stability of elected governments and strengthen party discipline.
---
### Q529. A member of a House belonging to a political party is liable for disqualification if the member:
A) Voluntarily gives up the membership of that political party
B) Votes or abstains from voting contrary to a party direction (whip), without condonation within the prescribed period
C) Both A and B
D) Merely criticizes the party publicly
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule provides these two principal grounds for disqualification of members belonging to political parties.
---
### Q530. Under the Tenth Schedule, the expression "voluntarily giving up membership" has been interpreted by courts to:
A) Mean only formal written resignation
B) Include conduct from which an intention to leave the party may be inferred
C) Apply only after conviction by a court
D) Apply only to nominated members
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Judicial decisions have clarified that formal resignation is not the only way to "voluntarily give up" party membership; conduct may also establish it.
---
### Q531. A nominated member of a House may join a political party without attracting disqualification if the member joins:
A) Within six months of taking the seat
B) Within one month
C) Within one year
D) At any time
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** A nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking their seat without attracting disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
---
### Q532. An independently elected member becomes liable for disqualification if the member:
A) Abstains from voting once
B) Joins a political party after the election
C) Criticizes the Government
D) Changes constituency
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** An independent member elected without party affiliation is disqualified if they subsequently join a political party.
---
### Q533. The authority to decide questions of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is the:
A) President of India
B) Governor
C) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly or the Chairman of the House concerned, as applicable
D) Election Commission of India
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The presiding officer of the concerned House decides disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule, subject to judicial review.
---
### Q534. The Anti-Defection Law applies to:
A) Members of Parliament only
B) Members of State Legislatures only
C) Both Members of Parliament and Members of State Legislatures
D) Local bodies only
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule applies to both Parliament and State Legislatures.
---
### Q535. Which Constitutional Amendment strengthened the Anti-Defection Law by restricting the size of the Council of Ministers and removing the exemption for a split?
A) 86th Amendment
B) 91st Amendment
C) 97th Amendment
D) 101st Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003**
**Explanation:** The 91st Amendment deleted the earlier protection for splits and introduced additional measures to discourage defections.
---
### Q536. After the 91st Constitutional Amendment, a merger is protected from disqualification if:
A) One-third of members agree
B) Two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to the merger
C) Half the members agree
D) The Governor approves it
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution recognizes mergers supported by at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party.
---
### Q537. Which provision relating to a "split" was removed by the 91st Constitutional Amendment?
A) Protection for one-half of members
B) Protection for one-third of members
C) Protection for nominated members
D) Protection for independent members
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The earlier exemption for splits involving one-third of members was deleted to strengthen anti-defection provisions.
---
### Q538. Judicial review of the Speaker's decision under the Tenth Schedule was recognized by the Supreme Court in:
A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
C) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court held that the Speaker's decisions are subject to judicial review after the decision is made.
---
### Q539. The Anti-Defection Law primarily seeks to balance:
A) Judicial independence and executive power
B) Party discipline and representative democracy
C) Union and State taxation
D) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The law aims to preserve stable governments while maintaining the democratic character of legislative institutions.
---
### Q540. Which of the following is **NOT** ordinarily a ground for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule?
A) Voluntarily giving up party membership
B) Joining a political party after being elected as an independent member
C) Voting against the party whip without condonation
D) Contesting an election from another constituency
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** Contesting from another constituency is governed by election law, not by the Anti-Defection Law.
---
### Q541. A political party registered with the Election Commission derives constitutional recognition primarily through:
A) Part XV and laws made by Parliament
B) Part IX only
C) Part XIII only
D) The Tenth Schedule alone
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** While the Constitution provides the electoral framework under Part XV, detailed regulation of political parties is largely governed by parliamentary law, including the Representation of the People Acts.
---
### Q542. The purpose of a party whip is to:
A) Conduct elections
B) Direct party members regarding voting or attendance in the House
C) Remove Members of Parliament
D) Certify Money Bills
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** A whip helps ensure party discipline during legislative proceedings.
---
### Q543. If a member votes contrary to the party whip but the political party condones the action within the period prescribed under the Tenth Schedule, the member:
A) Is automatically disqualified
B) Is not disqualified on that ground
C) Must resign immediately
D) Is suspended from Parliament by the Election Commission
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule allows the political party to condone such action within the prescribed period, preventing disqualification on that basis.
---
### Q544. Which of the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law is correct?
A) It abolishes political parties.
B) It seeks to discourage frequent defections that destabilize elected governments.
C) It prevents judicial review.
D) It applies only during a National Emergency.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The law was enacted to reduce political instability caused by frequent defections.
---
### Q545. The Tenth Schedule was introduced mainly in response to:
A) Electoral reforms
B) Increasing instances of political defections after elections
C) Judicial appointments
D) Language disputes
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The phenomenon popularly described as "Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram" highlighted the need for anti-defection measures.
---
### Q546. Which constitutional value is promoted by the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Stable parliamentary government
B) Independent judiciary
C) Federal taxation
D) Emergency administration
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Anti-Defection Law seeks to promote stable governments by discouraging opportunistic changes in party allegiance.
---
### Q547. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
A) Fourth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
**Answer:** **A) Fourth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Fourth Schedule allocates seats in the Rajya Sabha among the States and Union Territories. This is distinct from the Tenth Schedule, which deals with defection.
---
### Q548. The decision of the Speaker under the Tenth Schedule is:
A) Completely beyond judicial review
B) Subject to judicial review in accordance with constitutional principles
C) Reviewable only by Parliament
D) Subject to approval by the President
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Following **Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu**, such decisions are open to judicial review on appropriate grounds.
---
### Q549. Which statement correctly distinguishes political parties from the Election Commission?
A) Both are constitutional bodies.
B) Political parties are constitutional authorities.
C) The Election Commission is a constitutional body, while political parties are regulated primarily by statutory law.
D) Political parties appoint the Election Commission.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Election Commission is established by the Constitution, whereas political parties are primarily governed through statutory provisions and electoral regulations.
---
### Q550. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy behind the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Legislators may freely change parties without constitutional consequences.
B) The Constitution seeks to balance democratic representation, party discipline, and governmental stability through the Tenth Schedule while preserving judicial review.
C) The Anti-Defection Law abolishes dissent within political parties.
D) The Tenth Schedule applies only to Members of Parliament.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule aims to strengthen parliamentary democracy by reducing unprincipled defections while ensuring that decisions under the law remain subject to constitutional judicial review.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 6 – Part 3 (Questions 551–575)**
**Topic:** Official Language of India (Part XVII – Articles 343–351)
---
### Q551. Which Part of the Constitution deals with the Official Language?
A) Part XV
B) Part XVI
C) Part XVII
D) Part XVIII
**Answer:** **C) Part XVII**
**Explanation:** Part XVII (Articles 343–351) contains the constitutional provisions relating to the official language of the Union, regional languages, the language of the judiciary, and the development of Hindi.
---
### Q552. Which Article declares Hindi in the Devanagari script as the Official Language of the Union?
A) Article 342
B) Article 343
C) Article 344
D) Article 345
**Answer:** **B) Article 343**
**Explanation:** Article 343 provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script. It also provides for the use of the international form of Indian numerals.
---
### Q553. The Official Language of the Union is:
A) English
B) Hindi in the Devanagari script
C) Sanskrit
D) Hindi and English jointly under the Constitution
**Answer:** **B) Hindi in the Devanagari script**
**Explanation:** The Constitution declares Hindi in the Devanagari script as the Official Language of the Union. English continues to be used for official purposes in accordance with constitutional and statutory provisions.
---
### Q554. Which script has been adopted for the Official Language of the Union?
A) Roman
B) Persian
C) Devanagari
D) Gurmukhi
**Answer:** **C) Devanagari**
**Explanation:** Article 343 specifies the Devanagari script for Hindi as the Official Language of the Union.
---
### Q555. Which Article provides for the constitution of the Official Language Commission?
A) Article 343
B) Article 344
C) Article 345
D) Article 346
**Answer:** **B) Article 344**
**Explanation:** Article 344 provides for a Commission and a Committee of Parliament regarding the progressive use of Hindi and related language matters.
---
### Q556. The Official Language Commission is constituted by the:
A) Parliament
B) President of India
C) Prime Minister
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President constitutes the Official Language Commission under Article 344.
---
### Q557. Which Article empowers the Legislature of a State to adopt any one or more languages in use in the State, or Hindi, as the official language of that State?
A) Article 344
B) Article 345
C) Article 346
D) Article 347
**Answer:** **B) Article 345**
**Explanation:** States have the constitutional authority to choose their official language(s) through legislation.
---
### Q558. Until a State Legislature otherwise provides, which language continues to be used for official purposes of the State?
A) Sanskrit
B) English
C) Urdu
D) Hindi only
**Answer:** **B) English**
**Explanation:** Article 345 permits the continued use of English until the State Legislature decides otherwise.
---
### Q559. Which Article deals with the official language for communication between one State and another, and between a State and the Union?
A) Article 345
B) Article 346
C) Article 347
D) Article 348
**Answer:** **B) Article 346**
**Explanation:** Article 346 governs the language used for official communication between States and between States and the Union.
---
### Q560. If two States agree, they may communicate with each other in:
A) Any language agreed upon, subject to constitutional provisions
B) English only
C) Hindi only
D) Sanskrit only
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution permits flexibility in inter-State communication where both States agree, subject to the constitutional framework.
---
### Q561. Which Article provides for recognition of a language spoken by a section of the population of a State?
A) Article 346
B) Article 347
C) Article 348
D) Article 349
**Answer:** **B) Article 347**
**Explanation:** If the President is satisfied that a substantial proportion of a State's population desires such recognition, appropriate directions may be issued.
---
### Q562. Which Article deals with the language of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
A) Article 347
B) Article 348
C) Article 349
D) Article 350
**Answer:** **B) Article 348**
**Explanation:** Article 348 provides that proceedings in the Supreme Court and High Courts shall ordinarily be conducted in English unless otherwise provided by law or permitted in accordance with constitutional provisions.
---
### Q563. The authoritative texts of Bills, Acts, Ordinances, and certain legal instruments are generally to be in:
A) Hindi only
B) English
C) Sanskrit
D) Any State language
**Answer:** **B) English**
**Explanation:** Article 348 provides for English to be used for authoritative legal texts unless Parliament provides otherwise.
---
### Q564. Which Article places restrictions on Parliament regarding laws relating to language for a specified period after the commencement of the Constitution?
A) Article 348
B) Article 349
C) Article 350
D) Article 351
**Answer:** **B) Article 349**
**Explanation:** Article 349 prescribes a special procedure for certain language-related legislation during the initial constitutional period.
---
### Q565. Which Article guarantees the right to submit representations for the redress of grievances in any language used in the Union or the State?
A) Article 349
B) Article 350
C) Article 350A
D) Article 351
**Answer:** **B) Article 350**
**Explanation:** Every person has the right to submit representations for grievance redressal in any language used in the Union or the concerned State.
---
### Q566. Which Article provides for facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education for children belonging to linguistic minority groups?
A) Article 350
B) Article 350A
C) Article 350B
D) Article 351
**Answer:** **B) Article 350A**
**Explanation:** It directs States and local authorities to provide adequate facilities for primary education in the mother tongue for linguistic minorities, where appropriate.
---
### Q567. Which Article provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?
A) Article 350A
B) Article 350B
C) Article 351
D) Article 352
**Answer:** **B) Article 350B**
**Explanation:** The Special Officer investigates matters relating to the safeguards for linguistic minorities and reports to the President.
---
### Q568. The reports of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities are submitted to the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Parliament directly
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President places these reports before Parliament and sends them to the concerned State Governments.
---
### Q569. Which Article directs the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language?
A) Article 350B
B) Article 351
C) Article 352
D) Article 353
**Answer:** **B) Article 351**
**Explanation:** Article 351 directs the Union to promote the spread of Hindi while drawing upon forms, styles, and expressions from other Indian languages and enriching it primarily through Sanskrit.
---
### Q570. The constitutional objective of Article 351 is to:
A) Replace all regional languages
B) Promote the development of Hindi while respecting India's linguistic heritage
C) Abolish English immediately
D) Restrict State languages
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Article 351 promotes Hindi without diminishing the importance of India's rich linguistic diversity.
---
### Q571. Which Schedule of the Constitution lists the recognized languages of India?
A) Seventh Schedule
B) Eighth Schedule
C) Ninth Schedule
D) Tenth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Eighth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Eighth Schedule presently recognizes **22 languages**. Inclusion in the Schedule has constitutional significance for language-related matters.
---
### Q572. The Eighth Schedule currently contains:
A) 18 languages
B) 20 languages
C) 22 languages
D) 24 languages
**Answer:** **C) 22 languages**
**Explanation:** The number has increased through constitutional amendments since the Constitution came into force.
---
### Q573. Which Constitutional Amendment added **Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santali** to the Eighth Schedule?
A) 71st Amendment
B) 92nd Amendment
C) 97th Amendment
D) 101st Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003**
**Explanation:** The 92nd Amendment expanded the Eighth Schedule by adding these four languages.
---
### Q574. The constitutional provisions relating to language primarily seek to:
A) Establish only one language for all purposes
B) Balance national integration with linguistic diversity
C) Eliminate regional languages
D) Give preference only to English
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution recognizes India's multilingual character while providing for the Official Language of the Union and safeguards for linguistic minorities.
---
### Q575. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy of Part XVII?
A) Only Hindi may be used for all official purposes throughout India.
B) English has no constitutional role.
C) The Constitution balances the promotion of Hindi, continued use of English where authorized, autonomy of States regarding official languages, and protection of linguistic minorities.
D) States cannot choose their own official languages.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Part XVII reflects a balanced approach by promoting Hindi as the Official Language of the Union, permitting the continued use of English in accordance with the Constitution and law, allowing States to determine their official languages, and protecting the rights of linguistic minorities.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 6 – Part 4 (Questions 576–600)**
**Topic:** Constitutional Bodies – Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Attorney General for India & Advocate General (Articles 148–151, 315–323, 76 & 165)
---
### Q576. Which Article provides for the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
A) Article 147
B) Article 148
C) Article 149
D) Article 150
**Answer:** **B) Article 148**
**Explanation:** Article 148 establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and the States.
---
### Q577. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Parliament
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President appoints the CAG by warrant under his or her hand and seal.
---
### Q578. The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed from office:
A) By the President at pleasure
B) In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
C) By Parliament through a simple majority
D) By the Prime Minister
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** This constitutional safeguard ensures the independence of the CAG.
---
### Q579. Which Article empowers Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG?
A) Article 148
B) Article 149
C) Article 150
D) Article 151
**Answer:** **B) Article 149**
**Explanation:** Parliament determines the duties and powers of the CAG by law.
---
### Q580. Which Article provides that the accounts of the Union and the States shall be kept in such form as the President may prescribe on the advice of the CAG?
A) Article 149
B) Article 150
C) Article 151
D) Article 152
**Answer:** **B) Article 150**
**Explanation:** The form of government accounts is prescribed by the President after considering the advice of the CAG.
---
### Q581. The reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Finance Commission
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President lays the CAG's reports before both Houses of Parliament.
---
### Q582. Which parliamentary committee primarily examines the reports of the CAG?
A) Estimates Committee
B) Public Accounts Committee
C) Committee on Public Undertakings
D) Rules Committee
**Answer:** **B) Public Accounts Committee**
**Explanation:** The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) scrutinizes CAG reports and examines whether public money has been spent as authorized by Parliament.
---
### Q583. The primary constitutional function of the CAG is to:
A) Prepare the Union Budget
B) Audit government accounts and promote financial accountability
C) Conduct elections
D) Advise the Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The CAG acts as the guardian of the public purse by auditing government receipts and expenditure.
---
### Q584. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Public Service Commissions?
A) Part XIII
B) Part XIV
C) Part XV
D) Part XVI
**Answer:** **B) Part XIV**
**Explanation:** Part XIV (Articles 315–323) deals with Public Service Commissions.
---
### Q585. Which Article provides for the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and State Public Service Commissions?
A) Article 314
B) Article 315
C) Article 316
D) Article 317
**Answer:** **B) Article 315**
**Explanation:** Article 315 provides for the establishment of the UPSC and State Public Service Commissions.
---
### Q586. The Chairman and Members of the UPSC are appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Parliament
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President appoints the Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission.
---
### Q587. Which Article deals with the appointment and term of office of Members of Public Service Commissions?
A) Article 315
B) Article 316
C) Article 317
D) Article 318
**Answer:** **B) Article 316**
**Explanation:** Article 316 prescribes the appointment procedure and tenure of the Chairman and Members.
---
### Q588. The Chairman or a Member of the UPSC holds office for a term of:
A) Four years or until attaining the age of 60 years
B) Five years or until attaining the age of 62 years
C) Six years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
D) Seven years only
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** A UPSC Member holds office for six years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
---
### Q589. Which Article deals with the removal and suspension of Members of Public Service Commissions?
A) Article 316
B) Article 317
C) Article 318
D) Article 319
**Answer:** **B) Article 317**
**Explanation:** Removal is by the President on specified constitutional grounds. In certain cases, the President acts after an inquiry by the Supreme Court.
---
### Q590. Which Article empowers the President (or Governor, as applicable) to determine the conditions of service of Members of Public Service Commissions?
A) Article 317
B) Article 318
C) Article 319
D) Article 320
**Answer:** **B) Article 318**
**Explanation:** Article 318 authorizes the framing of regulations concerning service conditions.
---
### Q591. Which Article places restrictions on the further employment of the Chairman and Members of Public Service Commissions after they cease to hold office?
A) Article 318
B) Article 319
C) Article 320
D) Article 321
**Answer:** **B) Article 319**
**Explanation:** These restrictions are intended to preserve the independence and impartiality of the Commission.
---
### Q592. Which Article specifies the functions of Public Service Commissions?
A) Article 319
B) Article 320
C) Article 321
D) Article 322
**Answer:** **B) Article 320**
**Explanation:** Public Service Commissions conduct examinations for appointments and advise on recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary matters, and related issues.
---
### Q593. The UPSC is primarily responsible for:
A) Auditing government accounts
B) Conducting recruitment examinations for Union services and advising on service matters
C) Conducting Parliamentary elections
D) Preparing the Union Budget
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The UPSC ensures merit-based recruitment to the civil services of the Union.
---
### Q594. Which Article provides for the office of the Attorney General for India?
A) Article 74
B) Article 75
C) Article 76
D) Article 77
**Answer:** **C) Article 76**
**Explanation:** Article 76 establishes the office of the Attorney General for India.
---
### Q595. The Attorney General for India is appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Parliament
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The Attorney General is appointed by the President and must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
---
### Q596. The Attorney General for India is the:
A) Head of the Election Commission
B) Highest Law Officer of the Government of India
C) Chief Auditor of India
D) Head of the Supreme Court Registry
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Attorney General advises the Government of India on legal matters and performs constitutional and statutory duties.
---
### Q597. Which Article provides for the office of the Advocate General for a State?
A) Article 163
B) Article 164
C) Article 165
D) Article 166
**Answer:** **C) Article 165**
**Explanation:** Article 165 establishes the office of the Advocate General for each State.
---
### Q598. The Advocate General of a State is appointed by the:
A) Chief Minister
B) Governor
C) President
D) High Court
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor and must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court.
---
### Q599. Which of the following correctly distinguishes the Attorney General from the Advocate General?
A) The Attorney General advises the Union Government, while the Advocate General advises the State Government.
B) Both are appointed by Parliament.
C) Both are appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
D) Both hold office for a fixed constitutional term.
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Attorney General is the highest law officer of the Union, whereas the Advocate General is the highest law officer of a State.
---
### Q600. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy behind bodies such as the CAG, UPSC, Attorney General, and Advocate General?
A) They function as departments of Parliament.
B) They are constitutional institutions created to promote accountability, merit-based administration, legal governance, and the rule of law through independent constitutional offices.
C) They function only during National Emergencies.
D) They exercise judicial powers over all constitutional disputes.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** These constitutional offices play vital roles in maintaining good governance. The **CAG** promotes financial accountability, the **UPSC** ensures merit-based recruitment, the **Attorney General** serves as the principal legal adviser to the Union Government, and the **Advocate General** performs a similar role for State Governments. Collectively, they strengthen constitutional governance, administrative efficiency, and the rule of law.
Excellent! Let's continue with the next volume.
---
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 7 – Part 1 (Questions 601–625)**
**Topic:** State Government – Governor (Part VI, Articles 153–162)
---
### Q601. Which Part of the Constitution deals with the Governments of the States?
A) Part IV
B) Part V
C) Part VI
D) Part VII
**Answer:** **C) Part VI**
**Explanation:** Part VI (Articles 152–237) deals with the constitutional framework relating to State Governments, including the Governor, Council of Ministers, State Legislature, High Courts, and Subordinate Courts.
---
### Q602. Which Article provides that there shall be a Governor for each State?
A) Article 152
B) Article 153
C) Article 154
D) Article 155
**Answer:** **B) Article 153**
**Explanation:** Article 153 provides that there shall be a Governor for each State. The same person may be appointed as Governor of two or more States.
---
### Q603. Which Constitutional Amendment expressly enabled the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States?
A) 7th Constitutional Amendment
B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
C) 44th Constitutional Amendment
D) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **A) 7th Constitutional Amendment**
**Explanation:** The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 facilitated the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more States.
---
### Q604. The executive power of a State is vested in the:
A) Chief Minister
B) Governor
C) State Legislature
D) High Court
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** Under Article 154, the executive power of the State is vested in the Governor and is exercised in accordance with the Constitution.
---
### Q605. Which Article provides for the appointment of the Governor?
A) Article 154
B) Article 155
C) Article 156
D) Article 157
**Answer:** **B) Article 155**
**Explanation:** The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his or her hand and seal.
---
### Q606. The Governor of a State is appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Chief Minister
D) State Legislature
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** Unlike the President, the Governor is not elected but appointed by the President.
---
### Q607. Which Article deals with the term of office of the Governor?
A) Article 155
B) Article 156
C) Article 157
D) Article 158
**Answer:** **B) Article 156**
**Explanation:** Article 156 provides that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, subject to the constitutional provisions regarding tenure.
---
### Q608. The normal term of office of the Governor is:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Until attaining the age of 65 years
**Answer:** **B) Five years**
**Explanation:** Although the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, the Constitution prescribes a normal term of five years.
---
### Q609. Which of the following is a constitutional qualification for appointment as Governor?
A) Citizen of India
B) At least 35 years of age
C) Both A and B
D) Graduate in Law
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Article 157 requires that the Governor must be a citizen of India and have attained the age of 35 years.
---
### Q610. Which Article prescribes the qualifications for appointment as Governor?
A) Article 156
B) Article 157
C) Article 158
D) Article 159
**Answer:** **B) Article 157**
**Explanation:** Article 157 specifies the constitutional qualifications for appointment as Governor.
---
### Q611. Which of the following is **NOT** a constitutional qualification for appointment as Governor?
A) Citizen of India
B) 35 years of age
C) Membership of Parliament
D) None of the above
**Answer:** **C) Membership of Parliament**
**Explanation:** A Governor need not be a Member of Parliament or a State Legislature.
---
### Q612. Which Article lays down the conditions of the Governor's office?
A) Article 157
B) Article 158
C) Article 159
D) Article 160
**Answer:** **B) Article 158**
**Explanation:** Article 158 provides conditions relating to office, including that the Governor shall not hold any office of profit.
---
### Q613. If a Member of Parliament is appointed as Governor:
A) The member continues to hold both offices.
B) The parliamentary seat becomes vacant upon entering office as Governor.
C) The member may choose either office after six months.
D) Parliament decides.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** A Governor cannot simultaneously be a member of Parliament or a State Legislature.
---
### Q614. The Governor takes the oath of office before the:
A) Chief Minister
B) President
C) Chief Justice of the High Court or, in their absence, the senior-most available Judge of that High Court
D) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Article 159 prescribes the oath, which is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court or the senior-most available Judge.
---
### Q615. Which Article provides for the Governor's oath or affirmation?
A) Article 158
B) Article 159
C) Article 160
D) Article 161
**Answer:** **B) Article 159**
**Explanation:** The Governor swears to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution and the law.
---
### Q616. Which Article provides for the discharge of the Governor's functions in certain contingencies?
A) Article 159
B) Article 160
C) Article 161
D) Article 162
**Answer:** **B) Article 160**
**Explanation:** Article 160 empowers the President to make such provisions as considered necessary for the discharge of the Governor's functions in specified contingencies.
---
### Q617. Which Article confers the Governor's power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, or commute sentences in certain cases?
A) Article 160
B) Article 161
C) Article 162
D) Article 163
**Answer:** **B) Article 161**
**Explanation:** Article 161 confers clemency powers upon the Governor in respect of offences against laws within the executive power of the State.
---
### Q618. Which constitutional authority possesses the power under Article 161?
A) President
B) Governor
C) Chief Minister
D) High Court
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** The Governor exercises the clemency power in matters falling within the State's executive domain.
---
### Q619. The executive power of the State extends to matters:
A) Only in the Union List
B) With respect to which the State Legislature has power to make laws, subject to the Constitution
C) Only in the Concurrent List
D) Only during an Emergency
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Article 162 defines the scope of the State's executive power.
---
### Q620. Which Article defines the extent of the executive power of a State?
A) Article 161
B) Article 162
C) Article 163
D) Article 164
**Answer:** **B) Article 162**
**Explanation:** The executive power of the State generally corresponds to the legislative competence of the State.
---
### Q621. The Governor is regarded as the:
A) Real Executive of the State
B) Constitutional Head of the State
C) Judicial Head of the State
D) Financial Head of the State
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Governor is the constitutional head, while the real executive authority is exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
---
### Q622. The Governor ordinarily exercises executive functions:
A) Independently in all matters
B) On the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except where the Constitution provides discretion
C) Only on the advice of the President
D) Only after consulting the High Court
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** India's parliamentary system requires the Governor to ordinarily act on ministerial advice, subject to limited constitutional discretion.
---
### Q623. Which statement correctly distinguishes the President and the Governor?
A) Both are directly elected by the people.
B) The President is elected, whereas the Governor is appointed by the President.
C) Both are appointed by Parliament.
D) Both are elected by State Legislatures.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The President is elected through an electoral college, while the Governor is appointed by the President.
---
### Q624. Which of the following is **NOT** ordinarily an executive function of the Governor?
A) Appointment of the Chief Minister
B) Granting assent to State Bills
C) Conducting elections to Parliament
D) Appointing the Advocate General of the State
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Elections to Parliament are conducted by the Election Commission of India, not the Governor.
---
### Q625. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional position of the Governor?
A) The Governor is the real executive authority of the State.
B) The Governor is the constitutional head of the State, exercising executive powers in accordance with the Constitution, ordinarily on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
C) The Governor functions only during President's Rule.
D) The Governor is subordinate to the Chief Minister.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Governor occupies a constitutional office central to the parliamentary system at the State level. While executive power is vested in the Governor, it is generally exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, subject to specific constitutional exceptions.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 7 – Part 2 (Questions 626–650)**
**Topic:** Chief Minister & Council of Ministers (Articles 163–167)
---
### Q626. Which Article provides for the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor?
A) Article 162
B) Article 163
C) Article 164
D) Article 165
**Answer:** **B) Article 163**
**Explanation:** Article 163 provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its head to aid and advise the Governor, except in matters where the Constitution requires the Governor to act in his or her discretion.
---
### Q627. The real executive authority in a State is the:
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Chief Justice of the High Court
D) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
**Answer:** **B) Chief Minister**
**Explanation:** While the Governor is the constitutional head, the Chief Minister is the real executive head who leads the Council of Ministers.
---
### Q628. The Chief Minister is appointed by the:
A) President of India
B) Governor
C) State Legislature
D) High Court
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** Under Article 164, the Governor appoints the Chief Minister. By constitutional convention, the Governor appoints the person most likely to command the confidence of the Legislative Assembly.
---
### Q629. Other Ministers are appointed by the:
A) President
B) Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister
C) Legislative Assembly
D) Chief Justice of the High Court
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Governor appoints other Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister.
---
### Q630. Which Article deals with the appointment of the Chief Minister and other Ministers?
A) Article 163
B) Article 164
C) Article 165
D) Article 166
**Answer:** **B) Article 164**
**Explanation:** Article 164 contains provisions relating to the appointment, tenure, salaries, and collective responsibility of Ministers.
---
### Q631. The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to the:
A) Governor
B) Legislative Council
C) Legislative Assembly
D) President
**Answer:** **C) Legislative Assembly**
**Explanation:** Collective responsibility means that the Council of Ministers remains in office only so long as it enjoys the confidence of the Legislative Assembly.
---
### Q632. Which constitutional principle requires all Ministers to stand or fall together?
A) Federalism
B) Judicial Review
C) Collective Responsibility
D) Separation of Powers
**Answer:** **C) Collective Responsibility**
**Explanation:** Collective responsibility is a fundamental feature of the parliamentary form of government.
---
### Q633. A Minister who is not a member of the State Legislature must become a member within:
A) Three months
B) Six months
C) One year
D) Two years
**Answer:** **B) Six months**
**Explanation:** Under Article 164, a Minister who is not a member of the State Legislature for six consecutive months ceases to be a Minister.
---
### Q634. The oath of office to the Chief Minister is administered by the:
A) President
B) Governor
C) Chief Justice of the High Court
D) Speaker
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** The Governor administers the oath of office and secrecy to the Chief Minister and other Ministers.
---
### Q635. Ministers hold office:
A) During the pleasure of the Governor
B) During the pleasure of the President
C) For a fixed term of five years
D) Until attaining the age of 65 years
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Constitutionally, Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, though this operates within the framework of parliamentary government and legislative confidence.
---
### Q636. Which Constitutional Amendment limited the size of the Council of Ministers in the States?
A) 52nd Amendment
B) 73rd Amendment
C) 91st Amendment
D) 101st Amendment
**Answer:** **C) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003**
**Explanation:** The 91st Amendment limits the size of the Council of Ministers to **15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly**, subject to a minimum of **12 Ministers**.
---
### Q637. The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a State shall not exceed:
A) 10% of the Legislative Assembly
B) 12% of the Legislative Assembly
C) 15% of the Legislative Assembly
D) 20% of the Legislative Assembly
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** This constitutional limit seeks to promote efficiency and reduce the size of ministries.
---
### Q638. The minimum number of Ministers in a State is:
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 15
**Answer:** **C) 12**
**Explanation:** The Constitution provides that the number of Ministers shall not be less than twelve, even in smaller States.
---
### Q639. Which of the following best describes the role of the Chief Minister?
A) Constitutional Head of the State
B) Head of the Judiciary
C) Leader of the Council of Ministers and real executive head of the State Government
D) Head of the Election Commission
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Chief Minister directs government policy, coordinates ministerial work, and advises the Governor on executive matters.
---
### Q640. Which Article provides for the Advocate General of the State?
A) Article 164
B) Article 165
C) Article 166
D) Article 167
**Answer:** **B) Article 165**
**Explanation:** Article 165 establishes the office of the Advocate General, the highest law officer of the State.
---
### Q641. The Advocate General is appointed by the:
A) President
B) Governor
C) Chief Minister
D) High Court
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** The Advocate General must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court.
---
### Q642. Which Article deals with the conduct of the business of the Government of a State?
A) Article 165
B) Article 166
C) Article 167
D) Article 168
**Answer:** **B) Article 166**
**Explanation:** Article 166 provides that executive action shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor and regulates the conduct of government business.
---
### Q643. Executive action of the Government of a State is expressed to be taken in the name of the:
A) Chief Minister
B) Governor
C) State Legislature
D) High Court
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** This reflects the Governor's position as the constitutional head of the State.
---
### Q644. Which Article specifies the duties of the Chief Minister regarding the furnishing of information to the Governor?
A) Article 166
B) Article 167
C) Article 168
D) Article 169
**Answer:** **B) Article 167**
**Explanation:** Article 167 requires the Chief Minister to communicate decisions of the Council of Ministers and provide information sought by the Governor.
---
### Q645. One constitutional duty of the Chief Minister is to:
A) Appoint High Court Judges
B) Keep the Governor informed about the affairs of the State Government
C) Conduct elections
D) Audit State accounts
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Article 167 ensures effective communication between the Governor and the elected Government.
---
### Q646. If the Governor requires a matter decided by an individual Minister to be considered by the Council of Ministers, the Chief Minister shall:
A) Ignore the request
B) Place the matter before the Council of Ministers
C) Refer it to Parliament
D) Refer it to the High Court
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** This is one of the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister under Article 167.
---
### Q647. Which constitutional feature best characterizes the relationship between the Governor and the Council of Ministers?
A) Presidential form of government
B) Parliamentary form of government
C) Direct democracy
D) Confederation
**Answer:** **B) Parliamentary form of government**
**Explanation:** The Governor ordinarily acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
---
### Q648. Which of the following is **NOT** ordinarily a function of the Chief Minister?
A) Allocation of portfolios among Ministers
B) Advising the Governor regarding appointment of Ministers
C) Advising dissolution of the Legislative Assembly where constitutionally appropriate
D) Appointing High Court Judges
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** High Court Judges are appointed by the President under the Constitution, not by the Chief Minister.
---
### Q649. Which statement correctly describes the Council of Ministers?
A) It is collectively responsible to the Governor.
B) It is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
C) It is responsible only to the President.
D) It is independent of the Legislature.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Collective responsibility to the Legislative Assembly is a defining feature of parliamentary government in the States.
---
### Q650. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional position of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers?
A) The Governor independently administers the State.
B) The Chief Minister heads the real executive, while the Council of Ministers aids and advises the Governor and remains collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
C) The High Court directs the Council of Ministers.
D) The Council of Ministers functions independently of the Legislature.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Articles 163–167 establish the parliamentary executive at the State level. The Governor serves as the constitutional head, while the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers exercise the real executive authority, remaining accountable to the elected Legislative Assembly.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 7 – Part 3 (Questions 651–675)**
**Topic:** State Legislature (Articles 168–188)
---
### Q651. Which Article provides for the Constitution of Legislatures in the States?
A) Article 167
B) Article 168
C) Article 169
D) Article 170
**Answer:** **B) Article 168**
**Explanation:** Article 168 provides that the Legislature of a State shall consist of the Governor and, in States having a bicameral legislature, two Houses (Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council), or, in other States, the Governor and the Legislative Assembly.
---
### Q652. Which of the following States may have a bicameral Legislature under the Constitution?
A) Every State
B) Only Union Territories
C) States where a Legislative Council exists or is created according to the Constitution
D) Only States with more than 50 million population
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Some States have a Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad), while others have only a Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
---
### Q653. Which House is the Lower House of a State Legislature?
A) Legislative Council
B) Legislative Assembly
C) Rajya Sabha
D) Parliament
**Answer:** **B) Legislative Assembly**
**Explanation:** The Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) is the directly elected House and is the Lower House in bicameral States.
---
### Q654. Which House is the Upper House in a bicameral State Legislature?
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Legislative Council
C) Legislative Assembly
D) Lok Sabha
**Answer:** **B) Legislative Council**
**Explanation:** The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is the permanent Upper House in States having a bicameral legislature.
---
### Q655. Which Article deals with the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States?
A) Article 168
B) Article 169
C) Article 170
D) Article 171
**Answer:** **B) Article 169**
**Explanation:** Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council if the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State passes a resolution by the prescribed special majority.
---
### Q656. A resolution for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council must be passed by the Legislative Assembly with:
A) Simple majority
B) Special majority as specified in Article 169
C) Two-thirds of the total electorate
D) Unanimous approval
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The resolution requires a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
---
### Q657. Which authority ultimately creates or abolishes a Legislative Council?
A) Governor
B) President
C) Parliament by law
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **C) Parliament by law**
**Explanation:** After the State Assembly passes the required resolution, Parliament may enact a law creating or abolishing the Council.
---
### Q658. Which Article deals with the composition of the Legislative Assembly?
A) Article 169
B) Article 170
C) Article 171
D) Article 172
**Answer:** **B) Article 170**
**Explanation:** Article 170 provides for the composition of the Legislative Assembly based on territorial constituencies.
---
### Q659. Members of the Legislative Assembly are:
A) Nominated by the Governor
B) Directly elected by the people
C) Appointed by Parliament
D) Selected by the Election Commission
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** MLAs are elected directly by the people through universal adult suffrage.
---
### Q660. Which Article deals with the composition of the Legislative Council?
A) Article 170
B) Article 171
C) Article 172
D) Article 173
**Answer:** **B) Article 171**
**Explanation:** Article 171 prescribes the composition of the Legislative Council, with members elected or nominated from different constituencies and categories.
---
### Q661. The maximum strength of a Legislative Council shall not exceed:
A) Half the strength of the Legislative Assembly
B) One-third of the strength of the Legislative Assembly
C) Equal to the strength of the Legislative Assembly
D) One-fourth of the strength of the Legislative Assembly
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Article 171 provides that the total number of members in the Legislative Council shall not exceed one-third of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly and shall not be less than 40, except where otherwise provided by Parliament.
---
### Q662. Members of a Legislative Council are elected for a term of:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Seven years
**Answer:** **C) Six years**
**Explanation:** One-third of the members retire every two years, making the Legislative Council a permanent body.
---
### Q663. The normal term of a Legislative Assembly is:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Permanent House
**Answer:** **B) Five years**
**Explanation:** Under Article 172, the normal term is five years unless dissolved sooner, subject to constitutional provisions during a National Emergency.
---
### Q664. Which House is a permanent body?
A) Legislative Assembly
B) Legislative Council
C) Both Houses
D) Neither House
**Answer:** **B) Legislative Council**
**Explanation:** Like the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative Council is not subject to dissolution.
---
### Q665. Which Article prescribes the qualifications for membership of the State Legislature?
A) Article 172
B) Article 173
C) Article 174
D) Article 175
**Answer:** **B) Article 173**
**Explanation:** Article 173 lays down qualifications such as citizenship and other requirements prescribed by Parliament.
---
### Q666. A person must be at least _____ years of age to become a Member of a Legislative Assembly.
A) 21
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
**Answer:** **B) 25 years**
**Explanation:** The minimum age for contesting an election to the Legislative Assembly is 25 years.
---
### Q667. A person must be at least _____ years of age to become a Member of a Legislative Council.
A) 25
B) 28
C) 30
D) 35
**Answer:** **C) 30 years**
**Explanation:** The Constitution prescribes 30 years as the minimum age for membership of the Legislative Council.
---
### Q668. Which Article deals with the sessions, prorogation, and dissolution of the State Legislature?
A) Article 173
B) Article 174
C) Article 175
D) Article 176
**Answer:** **B) Article 174**
**Explanation:** The Governor summons, prorogues, and may dissolve the Legislative Assembly under Article 174.
---
### Q669. The maximum interval between two sessions of the State Legislature shall not exceed:
A) Three months
B) Four months
C) Six months
D) One year
**Answer:** **C) Six months**
**Explanation:** Similar to Parliament, not more than six months may elapse between the last sitting of one session and the first sitting of the next.
---
### Q670. Which Article empowers the Governor to address and send messages to the State Legislature?
A) Article 174
B) Article 175
C) Article 176
D) Article 177
**Answer:** **B) Article 175**
**Explanation:** The Governor may address either House or both Houses assembled together and send messages to the Legislature.
---
### Q671. Which Article provides for the Governor's special address at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of every year?
A) Article 175
B) Article 176
C) Article 177
D) Article 178
**Answer:** **B) Article 176**
**Explanation:** The Governor outlines the policies and legislative agenda of the Government through this address.
---
### Q672. Which Article grants Ministers and the Advocate General the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the State Legislature without the right to vote (unless otherwise entitled)?
A) Article 176
B) Article 177
C) Article 178
D) Article 179
**Answer:** **B) Article 177**
**Explanation:** Ministers and the Advocate General may participate in legislative proceedings but may vote only if they are members of the House concerned.
---
### Q673. Which Article provides for the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly?
A) Article 177
B) Article 178
C) Article 179
D) Article 180
**Answer:** **B) Article 178**
**Explanation:** The Legislative Assembly elects a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker from among its members.
---
### Q674. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is:
A) Appointed by the Governor
B) Elected by the Members of the Legislative Assembly
C) Appointed by the President
D) Appointed by the Chief Minister
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Speaker is elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly and presides over its proceedings.
---
### Q675. Which statement best describes the constitutional structure of the State Legislature?
A) Every State has a bicameral Legislature.
B) Every State has only one House.
C) The Constitution provides for either a unicameral or bicameral Legislature, with the Legislative Assembly as the directly elected House and the Legislative Council, where it exists, as the permanent Upper House.
D) Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution allows flexibility in the legislative structure of States. All States have a Legislative Assembly, while only certain States have a Legislative Council. This arrangement balances democratic representation with legislative review in bicameral States.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 7 – Part 4 (Questions 676–700)**
**Topic:** State Legislative Procedure, Money Bills, Budget & Financial Legislation (Articles 196–207)
---
### Q676. Which Article deals with the introduction and passing of Bills in the State Legislature?
A) Article 195
B) Article 196
C) Article 197
D) Article 198
**Answer:** **B) Article 196**
**Explanation:** Article 196 lays down the general procedure for the introduction and passing of Bills in the State Legislature.
---
### Q677. An Ordinary Bill in a bicameral State may be introduced in:
A) Legislative Assembly only
B) Legislative Council only
C) Either House of the State Legislature
D) Governor's Office only
**Answer:** **C) Either House of the State Legislature**
**Explanation:** An Ordinary Bill may originate in either the Legislative Assembly or the Legislative Council, subject to constitutional procedure.
---
### Q678. Which Article deals with restrictions on the powers of the Legislative Council regarding Ordinary Bills?
A) Article 196
B) Article 197
C) Article 198
D) Article 199
**Answer:** **B) Article 197**
**Explanation:** Article 197 limits the power of the Legislative Council to delay an Ordinary Bill. Unlike Parliament, there is no provision for a joint sitting of the State Legislature.
---
### Q679. In case of disagreement between the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council over an Ordinary Bill:
A) A Joint Sitting is held.
B) The Governor decides the Bill.
C) The Legislative Assembly ultimately prevails after following the constitutional procedure.
D) The Bill automatically lapses.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting of the State Legislature. The Legislative Assembly has the final say after the prescribed procedure under Article 197.
---
### Q680. Which statement is correct regarding Joint Sittings of State Legislatures?
A) They are provided under Article 108.
B) They are conducted by the Governor.
C) The Constitution does not provide for Joint Sittings of State Legislatures.
D) They are held only for Money Bills.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Unlike Parliament, there is no constitutional provision for a joint sitting of the two Houses of a State Legislature.
---
### Q681. Which Article deals with special procedure regarding Money Bills in the State Legislature?
A) Article 197
B) Article 198
C) Article 199
D) Article 200
**Answer:** **B) Article 198**
**Explanation:** Article 198 prescribes the procedure for Money Bills in States.
---
### Q682. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the:
A) Legislative Council
B) Legislative Assembly
C) Either House
D) Governor's Office
**Answer:** **B) Legislative Assembly**
**Explanation:** Like Parliament, a State Money Bill can originate only in the directly elected House.
---
### Q683. A Money Bill can be introduced only on the recommendation of the:
A) Chief Minister
B) Governor
C) Speaker
D) Finance Minister
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** Prior recommendation of the Governor is constitutionally required before introducing a Money Bill in the State Legislature.
---
### Q684. Which Article defines a Money Bill in relation to the State Legislature?
A) Article 198
B) Article 199
C) Article 200
D) Article 201
**Answer:** **B) Article 199**
**Explanation:** Article 199 defines a Money Bill for State Legislatures, similar to Article 110 for Parliament.
---
### Q685. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill in the State Legislature?
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
D) High Court
**Answer:** **C) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly**
**Explanation:** The Speaker's certification of a Money Bill is constitutionally recognized.
---
### Q686. The Legislative Council must return a Money Bill within:
A) 7 days
B) 10 days
C) 14 days
D) 30 days
**Answer:** **C) 14 days**
**Explanation:** The Legislative Council may recommend amendments but must return the Bill within 14 days.
---
### Q687. If the Legislative Council does not return a Money Bill within 14 days:
A) The Bill lapses.
B) The Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Legislative Assembly.
C) A Joint Sitting is held.
D) The Governor must withhold assent.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution gives primacy to the Legislative Assembly in financial matters.
---
### Q688. Which Article deals with the Governor's assent to Bills?
A) Article 199
B) Article 200
C) Article 201
D) Article 202
**Answer:** **B) Article 200**
**Explanation:** Article 200 empowers the Governor to assent to a Bill, withhold assent, reserve certain Bills for the President's consideration, or return a Bill other than a Money Bill for reconsideration.
---
### Q689. The Governor may return which type of Bill for reconsideration?
A) Money Bill
B) Constitutional Amendment Bill
C) Ordinary Bill
D) Appropriation Bill
**Answer:** **C) Ordinary Bill**
**Explanation:** A Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration by the Governor.
---
### Q690. Which Article deals with Bills reserved for the consideration of the President?
A) Article 200
B) Article 201
C) Article 202
D) Article 203
**Answer:** **B) Article 201**
**Explanation:** Where a Bill is reserved by the Governor, the President may assent, withhold assent, or direct reconsideration where constitutionally permissible.
---
### Q691. Which Article provides for the Annual Financial Statement (State Budget)?
A) Article 201
B) Article 202
C) Article 203
D) Article 204
**Answer:** **B) Article 202**
**Explanation:** The Governor causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before the State Legislature.
---
### Q692. The State Budget is constitutionally known as the:
A) Finance Commission Report
B) Annual Financial Statement
C) State Finance Bill
D) Public Accounts Statement
**Answer:** **B) Annual Financial Statement**
**Explanation:** Article 202 uses the constitutional term "Annual Financial Statement."
---
### Q693. Which Article deals with procedure regarding estimates and Demands for Grants?
A) Article 202
B) Article 203
C) Article 204
D) Article 205
**Answer:** **B) Article 203**
**Explanation:** Demands for Grants are submitted to the Legislative Assembly, which alone has the power to vote upon them.
---
### Q694. Demands for Grants in a State are voted by the:
A) Legislative Council
B) Legislative Assembly
C) Governor
D) High Court
**Answer:** **B) Legislative Assembly**
**Explanation:** The Legislative Council may discuss financial matters but cannot vote on Demands for Grants.
---
### Q695. Which Article provides for the Appropriation Bill in the State Legislature?
A) Article 203
B) Article 204
C) Article 205
D) Article 206
**Answer:** **B) Article 204**
**Explanation:** After Demands for Grants are voted, an Appropriation Bill authorizes expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State.
---
### Q696. Which Article deals with Supplementary, Additional, Excess and Exceptional Grants?
A) Article 204
B) Article 205
C) Article 206
D) Article 207
**Answer:** **B) Article 205**
**Explanation:** Article 205 provides for additional financial requirements that arise after the original budget has been passed.
---
### Q697. Which Article provides for Vote on Account, Vote of Credit and Exceptional Grants in a State?
A) Article 205
B) Article 206
C) Article 207
D) Article 208
**Answer:** **B) Article 206**
**Explanation:** These constitutional devices allow expenditure before the complete budget process is finalized or in exceptional circumstances.
---
### Q698. Which Article deals with Special Provisions regarding Financial Bills?
A) Article 206
B) Article 207
C) Article 208
D) Article 209
**Answer:** **B) Article 207**
**Explanation:** Article 207 contains provisions governing Financial Bills in the State Legislature.
---
### Q699. Which House enjoys primacy in financial matters in a bicameral State Legislature?
A) Legislative Council
B) Legislative Assembly
C) Both Houses equally
D) Governor
**Answer:** **B) Legislative Assembly**
**Explanation:** As in Parliament, the directly elected House has greater authority over financial legislation, including Money Bills and Demands for Grants.
---
### Q700. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional framework governing legislative procedure in the States?
A) The Legislative Council has equal powers with the Legislative Assembly in all matters.
B) The Constitution provides procedures for Ordinary Bills, Money Bills, Financial Bills, and the State Budget, while giving financial primacy to the Legislative Assembly and limiting the delaying powers of the Legislative Council.
C) Every State Legislature has two Houses with equal authority.
D) The Governor alone makes financial laws.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution establishes a parliamentary legislative process at the State level that broadly mirrors Parliament. The Legislative Assembly, as the directly elected House, enjoys financial supremacy, while the Legislative Council (where it exists) has a revisory and delaying role rather than co-equal legislative authority.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 8 – Part 1 (Questions 701–725)**
**Topic:** Panchayati Raj (Part IX – Articles 243–243O)
---
### Q701. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Panchayats?
A) Part VIII
B) Part IX
C) Part IX-A
D) Part X
**Answer:** **B) Part IX**
**Explanation:** Part IX (Articles 243–243O) contains constitutional provisions relating to Panchayats. These provisions were inserted by the **73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992**.
---
### Q702. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Part IX into the Constitution?
A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
B) 44th Constitutional Amendment
C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992**
**Explanation:** The 73rd Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions and came into force on **24 April 1993**.
---
### Q703. Which Article defines terms relating to Panchayats?
A) Article 242
B) Article 243
C) Article 243A
D) Article 243B
**Answer:** **B) Article 243**
**Explanation:** Article 243 contains definitions used throughout Part IX.
---
### Q704. Which Article provides for the constitution of Panchayats?
A) Article 243
B) Article 243A
C) Article 243B
D) Article 243C
**Answer:** **C) Article 243B**
**Explanation:** Article 243B mandates the constitution of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels, subject to constitutional provisions.
---
### Q705. Panchayati Raj Institutions primarily relate to:
A) Urban Local Government
B) Rural Local Government
C) State Judiciary
D) Parliament
**Answer:** **B) Rural Local Government**
**Explanation:** Panchayats are institutions of local self-government in rural areas.
---
### Q706. Which constitutional principle is most closely associated with Panchayati Raj?
A) Judicial Review
B) Democratic Decentralization
C) Presidential Government
D) Collective Responsibility
**Answer:** **B) Democratic Decentralization**
**Explanation:** Panchayati Raj promotes decentralized governance by empowering local bodies.
---
### Q707. Which Article provides for the Gram Sabha?
A) Article 243
B) Article 243A
C) Article 243B
D) Article 243C
**Answer:** **B) Article 243A**
**Explanation:** Article 243A empowers the Gram Sabha to exercise powers and perform functions as provided by State law.
---
### Q708. The Gram Sabha consists of:
A) Members of the Panchayat only
B) All persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Gram Sabha area
C) Government officials only
D) Village elders nominated by the Governor
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Gram Sabha is the foundation of rural local self-government and includes all registered voters of the village.
---
### Q709. Which Article deals with the composition of Panchayats?
A) Article 243B
B) Article 243C
C) Article 243D
D) Article 243E
**Answer:** **B) Article 243C**
**Explanation:** Article 243C provides for the composition of Panchayats, subject to State legislation.
---
### Q710. Members of a Panchayat are generally:
A) Nominated by the Governor
B) Directly elected by the people
C) Appointed by Parliament
D) Selected by the District Collector
**Answer:** **B) Directly elected by the people**
**Explanation:** The Constitution provides for direct elections to all seats in a Panchayat.
---
### Q711. Which Article provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats?
A) Article 243C
B) Article 243D
C) Article 243E
D) Article 243F
**Answer:** **B) Article 243D**
**Explanation:** Article 243D mandates reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women. States may provide greater reservation for women by law.
---
### Q712. The Constitution mandates that not less than what proportion of the total number of seats in Panchayats shall be reserved for women?
A) One-fourth
B) One-third
C) One-half
D) Two-thirds
**Answer:** **B) One-third**
**Explanation:** Article 243D requires reservation of at least one-third of the seats, including those reserved for SCs and STs, for women. Several States have increased this to 50% by legislation.
---
### Q713. Which Article prescribes the duration of Panchayats?
A) Article 243D
B) Article 243E
C) Article 243F
D) Article 243G
**Answer:** **B) Article 243E**
**Explanation:** Every Panchayat continues for five years unless dissolved earlier according to law.
---
### Q714. The normal term of a Panchayat is:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Seven years
**Answer:** **B) Five years**
**Explanation:** Elections must ordinarily be completed before the expiry of the five-year term or within the constitutionally prescribed period after dissolution.
---
### Q715. Which Article deals with disqualifications for membership of Panchayats?
A) Article 243E
B) Article 243F
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243H
**Answer:** **B) Article 243F**
**Explanation:** Disqualifications are determined in accordance with the Constitution and State legislation.
---
### Q716. Which Article empowers State Legislatures to endow Panchayats with powers and responsibilities?
A) Article 243F
B) Article 243G
C) Article 243H
D) Article 243I
**Answer:** **B) Article 243G**
**Explanation:** Article 243G enables States to devolve powers relating to local planning, economic development, and social justice.
---
### Q717. Which Schedule of the Constitution lists the subjects that may be entrusted to Panchayats?
A) Tenth Schedule
B) Eleventh Schedule
C) Twelfth Schedule
D) Seventh Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Eleventh Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Eleventh Schedule contains **29 subjects** that may be devolved to Panchayats by State Legislatures.
---
### Q718. The Eleventh Schedule was added by the:
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 73rd Amendment
D) 74th Amendment
**Answer:** **C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 73rd Amendment inserted both Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule.
---
### Q719. Which Article authorizes State Legislatures to provide Panchayats with powers to impose, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees?
A) Article 243G
B) Article 243H
C) Article 243I
D) Article 243J
**Answer:** **B) Article 243H**
**Explanation:** Article 243H enables States to strengthen the financial resources of Panchayats.
---
### Q720. Which Article provides for the constitution of a State Finance Commission?
A) Article 243H
B) Article 243I
C) Article 243J
D) Article 243K
**Answer:** **B) Article 243I**
**Explanation:** The State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of Panchayats and makes recommendations regarding the distribution of financial resources.
---
### Q721. A State Finance Commission is generally constituted every:
A) Three years
B) Four years
C) Five years
D) Six years
**Answer:** **C) Five years**
**Explanation:** Article 243I requires the Governor to constitute a State Finance Commission at the expiration of every five years.
---
### Q722. Which Article provides for the audit of Panchayat accounts?
A) Article 243I
B) Article 243J
C) Article 243K
D) Article 243L
**Answer:** **B) Article 243J**
**Explanation:** State Legislatures provide by law for the maintenance and audit of Panchayat accounts.
---
### Q723. Which Article provides for the State Election Commission in relation to Panchayat elections?
A) Article 243J
B) Article 243K
C) Article 243L
D) Article 243M
**Answer:** **B) Article 243K**
**Explanation:** The superintendence, direction, and control of Panchayat elections are vested in the State Election Commission.
---
### Q724. Elections to Panchayats are conducted by the:
A) Election Commission of India
B) State Election Commission
C) Governor
D) District Magistrate
**Answer:** **B) State Election Commission**
**Explanation:** Unlike Parliamentary and State Assembly elections, Panchayat elections are supervised by the State Election Commission.
---
### Q725. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy of Panchayati Raj?
A) Panchayats are departments of the State Government.
B) The Constitution establishes Panchayats as institutions of democratic local self-government, promoting decentralization, citizen participation, and rural development through constitutional safeguards.
C) Panchayats exercise judicial powers equivalent to High Courts.
D) Panchayats are temporary advisory bodies.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The 73rd Constitutional Amendment constitutionalized Panchayati Raj Institutions to strengthen grassroots democracy. Through regular elections, reservation of seats, State Finance Commissions, State Election Commissions, and the Eleventh Schedule, the Constitution seeks to deepen democratic participation, improve local governance, and promote rural development.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 8 – Part 2 (Questions 726–750)**
**Topic:** Municipalities (Part IX-A – Articles 243P–243ZG)
---
### Q726. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Municipalities?
A) Part IX
B) Part IX-A
C) Part X
D) Part XI
**Answer:** **B) Part IX-A**
**Explanation:** Part IX-A (Articles 243P–243ZG) deals with Municipalities and was inserted by the **74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992** to strengthen urban local self-government.
---
### Q727. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Part IX-A into the Constitution?
A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
B) 44th Constitutional Amendment
C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **D) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992**
**Explanation:** The 74th Amendment granted constitutional status to Municipalities and came into force on **1 June 1993**.
---
### Q728. Which Article contains definitions relating to Municipalities?
A) Article 243O
B) Article 243P
C) Article 243Q
D) Article 243R
**Answer:** **B) Article 243P**
**Explanation:** Article 243P defines terms used in Part IX-A, such as Municipality, Metropolitan Area, and Municipal Area.
---
### Q729. Which Article provides for the constitution of Municipalities?
A) Article 243P
B) Article 243Q
C) Article 243R
D) Article 243S
**Answer:** **B) Article 243Q**
**Explanation:** Article 243Q provides for the constitution of Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils, and Municipal Corporations.
---
### Q730. A **Nagar Panchayat** is constituted for:
A) A large metropolitan city
B) A rural district
C) An area in transition from rural to urban
D) A tribal area only
**Answer:** **C) An area in transition from rural to urban**
**Explanation:** Nagar Panchayats are intended for transitional areas moving from rural to urban status.
---
### Q731. A **Municipal Council** is generally constituted for:
A) Small urban areas
B) Villages
C) Metropolitan cities only
D) Union Territories only
**Answer:** **A) Small urban areas**
**Explanation:** Municipal Councils govern smaller urban areas, while Municipal Corporations govern larger urban areas.
---
### Q732. A **Municipal Corporation** is generally constituted for:
A) Rural areas
B) Large urban areas
C) Forest areas
D) Scheduled Areas only
**Answer:** **B) Large urban areas**
**Explanation:** Municipal Corporations administer large cities and metropolitan areas.
---
### Q733. Which Article deals with the composition of Municipalities?
A) Article 243Q
B) Article 243R
C) Article 243S
D) Article 243T
**Answer:** **B) Article 243R**
**Explanation:** Article 243R provides for the composition of Municipalities and direct election of members.
---
### Q734. Members of a Municipality are generally:
A) Nominated by the Governor
B) Directly elected by the people
C) Appointed by Parliament
D) Selected by the District Collector
**Answer:** **B) Directly elected by the people**
**Explanation:** The Constitution provides for direct election to seats in Municipalities.
---
### Q735. Which Article provides for the constitution and composition of Wards Committees?
A) Article 243R
B) Article 243S
C) Article 243T
D) Article 243U
**Answer:** **B) Article 243S**
**Explanation:** Wards Committees are constituted in Municipalities having a population of three lakh or more, subject to State law.
---
### Q736. Which Article provides for reservation of seats in Municipalities?
A) Article 243S
B) Article 243T
C) Article 243U
D) Article 243V
**Answer:** **B) Article 243T**
**Explanation:** Article 243T provides reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women. States may provide higher reservation by law.
---
### Q737. The Constitution mandates that not less than _____ of the total seats in Municipalities shall be reserved for women.
A) One-fourth
B) One-third
C) One-half
D) Two-thirds
**Answer:** **B) One-third**
**Explanation:** The constitutional minimum reservation for women is one-third, including seats reserved for women belonging to SCs and STs.
---
### Q738. Which Article provides for the duration of Municipalities?
A) Article 243T
B) Article 243U
C) Article 243V
D) Article 243W
**Answer:** **B) Article 243U**
**Explanation:** Every Municipality normally continues for five years unless dissolved earlier in accordance with law.
---
### Q739. The normal tenure of a Municipality is:
A) Four years
B) Five years
C) Six years
D) Seven years
**Answer:** **B) Five years**
**Explanation:** Elections are ordinarily required before the expiry of the five-year term or within the constitutionally prescribed period after dissolution.
---
### Q740. Which Article deals with disqualifications for membership of Municipalities?
A) Article 243U
B) Article 243V
C) Article 243W
D) Article 243X
**Answer:** **B) Article 243V**
**Explanation:** State Legislatures prescribe qualifications and disqualifications for membership, subject to the Constitution.
---
### Q741. Which Article empowers State Legislatures to endow Municipalities with powers, authority, and responsibilities?
A) Article 243V
B) Article 243W
C) Article 243X
D) Article 243Y
**Answer:** **B) Article 243W**
**Explanation:** Article 243W enables the devolution of powers relating to urban planning, public health, roads, water supply, sanitation, and other municipal functions.
---
### Q742. Which Schedule of the Constitution lists the functions that may be entrusted to Municipalities?
A) Eleventh Schedule
B) Twelfth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Tenth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Twelfth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Twelfth Schedule contains **18 subjects** relating to urban local governance.
---
### Q743. The Twelfth Schedule was added by the:
A) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
B) 74th Constitutional Amendment
C) 86th Constitutional Amendment
D) 101st Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **B) 74th Constitutional Amendment**
**Explanation:** The 74th Amendment inserted Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule into the Constitution.
---
### Q744. Which Article authorizes State Legislatures to provide Municipalities with taxation powers?
A) Article 243W
B) Article 243X
C) Article 243Y
D) Article 243Z
**Answer:** **B) Article 243X**
**Explanation:** Municipalities may be authorized by State law to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.
---
### Q745. Which Article provides for the application of the State Finance Commission to Municipalities?
A) Article 243X
B) Article 243Y
C) Article 243Z
D) Article 243ZA
**Answer:** **B) Article 243Y**
**Explanation:** The State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of Municipalities and recommends the distribution of financial resources.
---
### Q746. Which Article provides for the conduct of elections to Municipalities?
A) Article 243Y
B) Article 243ZA
C) Article 243ZB
D) Article 243ZC
**Answer:** **B) Article 243ZA**
**Explanation:** The superintendence, direction, and control of municipal elections are vested in the State Election Commission.
---
### Q747. Elections to Municipalities are conducted by the:
A) Election Commission of India
B) State Election Commission
C) Governor
D) Ministry of Urban Development
**Answer:** **B) State Election Commission**
**Explanation:** The State Election Commission independently conducts elections to Municipalities, similar to its role for Panchayats.
---
### Q748. Which constitutional body is responsible for reviewing the financial position of both Panchayats and Municipalities?
A) Finance Commission of India
B) State Finance Commission
C) Election Commission of India
D) Comptroller and Auditor General
**Answer:** **B) State Finance Commission**
**Explanation:** The State Finance Commission recommends principles governing the distribution of financial resources to both Panchayats and Municipalities.
---
### Q749. Which constitutional principle is most closely reflected in Part IX-A?
A) Judicial Activism
B) Democratic Decentralization in Urban Governance
C) Collective Responsibility
D) Separation of Powers
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Part IX-A seeks to strengthen local democracy by empowering urban local bodies with constitutional status and greater responsibilities.
---
### Q750. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy of Municipalities?
A) Municipalities function merely as administrative departments of State Governments.
B) The Constitution establishes Municipalities as institutions of urban local self-government with democratic elections, financial mechanisms, reservation policies, and devolved responsibilities to promote participatory urban governance.
C) Municipalities exercise judicial powers similar to High Courts.
D) Municipalities are temporary advisory committees.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The 74th Constitutional Amendment constitutionalized Municipalities to strengthen urban governance. By providing for elected local bodies, regular elections, reservation for SCs, STs, and women, State Finance Commissions, State Election Commissions, and the Twelfth Schedule, the Constitution promotes decentralized, accountable, and participatory urban administration.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 8 – Part 3 (Questions 751–775)**
**Topic:** Scheduled Areas, Tribal Areas, Fifth Schedule & Sixth Schedule
---
### Q751. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
A) Fourth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Sixth Schedule
D) Seventh Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Fifth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Fifth Schedule provides the constitutional framework for the administration and control of **Scheduled Areas** and **Scheduled Tribes** in States other than those covered by the Sixth Schedule.
---
### Q752. Which Schedule deals with the administration of Tribal Areas in certain North-Eastern States?
A) Fifth Schedule
B) Sixth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Eighth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Sixth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Sixth Schedule provides for Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils in specified tribal areas of certain North-Eastern States.
---
### Q753. The Fifth Schedule primarily applies to:
A) Union Territories
B) Scheduled Areas in States other than those governed by the Sixth Schedule
C) All tribal areas in India
D) Metropolitan cities
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Fifth Schedule governs Scheduled Areas outside the States covered by the Sixth Schedule.
---
### Q754. Which constitutional authority declares an area as a Scheduled Area?
A) Parliament
B) President of India
C) Governor
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President has the constitutional authority to declare, alter, or rescind Scheduled Areas through orders in accordance with the Fifth Schedule.
---
### Q755. Which constitutional authority may submit annual reports regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas to the President?
A) Chief Minister
B) Governor
C) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
D) Chief Justice of the High Court
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** The Governor reports annually, or whenever required by the President, on the administration of Scheduled Areas.
---
### Q756. The President may issue directions to a State regarding:
A) Judicial appointments
B) Administration of Scheduled Areas
C) Conduct of Parliamentary proceedings
D) Appointment of Governors
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Under the Fifth Schedule, the President may issue directions concerning the administration of Scheduled Areas.
---
### Q757. Which body is provided for under the Fifth Schedule to advise on matters concerning the welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes?
A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
B) Tribal Advisory Council
C) Finance Commission
D) Inter-State Council
**Answer:** **B) Tribal Advisory Council**
**Explanation:** States having Scheduled Areas are required to establish a Tribal Advisory Council to advise on matters relating to the welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes.
---
### Q758. The Tribal Advisory Council consists predominantly of:
A) Members nominated by the President
B) Members of Parliament
C) Representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly, as far as practicable
D) District Collectors
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Fifth Schedule seeks to ensure representation of Scheduled Tribes in the Tribal Advisory Council.
---
### Q759. Which constitutional authority has the power to make regulations for peace and good government in Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule?
A) President
B) Governor
C) Parliament
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) Governor**
**Explanation:** The Governor may make regulations for Scheduled Areas, including those relating to land transfers and money-lending, subject to constitutional requirements.
---
### Q760. Regulations made by the Governor under the Fifth Schedule require the assent of the:
A) Chief Minister
B) President of India
C) Parliament
D) Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** Such regulations require the assent of the President before taking effect.
---
### Q761. The Sixth Schedule presently applies to tribal areas in which of the following States?
A) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
B) Nagaland, Manipur, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh
C) Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh
D) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Sixth Schedule applies to specified tribal areas in **Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram**.
---
### Q762. The Sixth Schedule provides for:
A) Municipal Corporations
B) Autonomous District Councils
C) Zila Parishads
D) Gram Sabhas only
**Answer:** **B) Autonomous District Councils**
**Explanation:** Autonomous District Councils are empowered to administer specified tribal areas with a degree of legislative, executive, and financial autonomy.
---
### Q763. Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule possess powers relating to:
A) Local legislation on specified subjects
B) Administration of justice through certain traditional institutions
C) Management of local resources in accordance with the Constitution
D) All of the above, subject to constitutional limitations
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** The Sixth Schedule grants significant autonomy in specified matters while remaining within the constitutional framework.
---
### Q764. Which constitutional objective is most closely associated with the Fifth and Sixth Schedules?
A) Uniform administration across all States
B) Protection of tribal interests and preservation of traditional institutions
C) Centralization of executive power
D) Abolition of local self-government
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Schedules recognize the distinct social, cultural, and administrative needs of tribal communities.
---
### Q765. Which of the following best distinguishes the Fifth Schedule from the Sixth Schedule?
A) The Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas generally, whereas the Sixth Schedule provides autonomous governance arrangements for specified tribal areas in certain North-Eastern States.
B) Both Schedules are identical.
C) The Sixth Schedule applies to all Scheduled Tribes in India.
D) The Fifth Schedule applies only to Union Territories.
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Sixth Schedule provides a more extensive autonomous institutional framework than the Fifth Schedule.
---
### Q766. Which constitutional principle underlies the Fifth and Sixth Schedules?
A) Cooperative Federalism only
B) Protective discrimination and decentralized tribal self-governance
C) Parliamentary sovereignty
D) Judicial supremacy
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** These Schedules seek to protect tribal communities while respecting their customs, traditions, and local institutions.
---
### Q767. The Governor's special responsibilities under the Fifth Schedule primarily relate to:
A) Conducting elections
B) Administration of Scheduled Areas and protection of tribal interests
C) Appointment of High Court Judges
D) Budget presentation
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Governor plays a special constitutional role in administering Scheduled Areas.
---
### Q768. Which of the following may be restricted by regulations under the Fifth Schedule in Scheduled Areas?
A) Transfer of tribal land
B) Money-lending to Scheduled Tribes
C) Both A and B
D) Parliamentary elections
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Fifth Schedule permits regulations to protect tribal communities from exploitation, particularly regarding land and money-lending.
---
### Q769. Which body under the Sixth Schedule can make laws on specified local matters, subject to constitutional provisions?
A) Finance Commission
B) Autonomous District Council
C) State Public Service Commission
D) Election Commission of India
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Autonomous District Councils have legislative powers over specified subjects such as land, forests (other than reserved forests), shifting cultivation, village administration, and customary law, subject to constitutional limitations.
---
### Q770. Which of the following is **NOT** a feature of the Sixth Schedule?
A) Autonomous District Councils
B) Autonomous Regional Councils
C) Legislative powers on specified local matters
D) Direct administration by the Union Government without local autonomous institutions
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** The Sixth Schedule emphasizes autonomous local institutions rather than direct centralized administration.
---
### Q771. The Fifth Schedule primarily seeks to:
A) Promote urban governance
B) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas
C) Establish High Courts
D) Conduct elections
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Fifth Schedule is designed to safeguard tribal communities and ensure appropriate governance in Scheduled Areas.
---
### Q772. The Sixth Schedule represents a constitutional model of:
A) Centralized administration
B) Autonomous tribal self-governance within the constitutional framework
C) Presidential government
D) Unitary government
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Sixth Schedule balances tribal autonomy with the unity and integrity of the constitutional system.
---
### Q773. Which constitutional authority may alter the boundaries of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule?
A) Parliament only
B) President of India
C) Governor only
D) State Legislature
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President may increase, decrease, alter, or rescind Scheduled Areas by order in accordance with the Fifth Schedule.
---
### Q774. Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the Fifth and Sixth Schedules?
A) They perform identical constitutional functions.
B) Both seek to protect tribal communities, but the Sixth Schedule provides a distinct autonomous governance framework for specified tribal areas in certain North-Eastern States.
C) The Fifth Schedule applies only to Municipalities.
D) The Sixth Schedule applies to all Scheduled Areas in India.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Both Schedules aim to protect tribal interests, but they do so through different constitutional mechanisms tailored to different regions.
---
### Q775. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy behind the Fifth and Sixth Schedules?
A) Tribal communities should be governed exclusively by Parliament.
B) The Constitution recognizes India's tribal diversity by providing special governance arrangements that protect tribal rights, preserve traditional institutions, and promote balanced development within the constitutional framework.
C) The Constitution abolishes customary tribal institutions.
D) Tribal areas are excluded from the Constitution.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Fifth and Sixth Schedules reflect the Constitution's commitment to **social justice**, **cultural preservation**, **inclusive governance**, and **balanced federalism**. By recognizing the distinct historical, social, and cultural circumstances of tribal communities, these provisions aim to ensure development while safeguarding identity, customary practices, and constitutional rights.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 8 – Part 4 (Questions 776–800)**
**Topic:** Union Territories, Constitutional Amendments & Constitutional Schedules
---
### Q776. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Union Territories?
A) Part VII
B) Part VIII
C) Part IX
D) Part X
**Answer:** **B) Part VIII**
**Explanation:** **Part VIII (Articles 239–242)** deals with the administration of Union Territories. Parliament may provide different administrative arrangements for different Union Territories through constitutional and statutory provisions.
---
### Q777. Which Article provides that every Union Territory shall be administered by the President?
A) Article 238
B) Article 239
C) Article 240
D) Article 241
**Answer:** **B) Article 239**
**Explanation:** Under Article 239, every Union Territory is administered by the President through an Administrator appointed by the President.
---
### Q778. The Administrator of a Union Territory is appointed by the:
A) Prime Minister
B) President of India
C) Governor of the adjoining State
D) Parliament
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The Administrator acts on behalf of the President in administering the Union Territory.
---
### Q779. Which Article provides for the creation of local legislatures or Councils of Ministers for certain Union Territories?
A) Article 239
B) Article 239A
C) Article 240
D) Article 241
**Answer:** **B) Article 239A**
**Explanation:** Article 239A empowers Parliament to create legislatures or Councils of Ministers for specified Union Territories by law.
---
### Q780. Which Article provides special constitutional provisions for the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
A) Article 239A
B) Article 239AA
C) Article 239AB
D) Article 240
**Answer:** **B) Article 239AA**
**Explanation:** Inserted by the **69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991**, Article 239AA provides for a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
---
### Q781. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 239AA?
A) 52nd Amendment
B) 61st Amendment
C) 69th Amendment
D) 74th Amendment
**Answer:** **C) 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991**
**Explanation:** The amendment established the special constitutional status of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
---
### Q782. Which Article empowers the President to make regulations for certain Union Territories?
A) Article 239AA
B) Article 239AB
C) Article 240
D) Article 241
**Answer:** **C) Article 240**
**Explanation:** Article 240 authorizes the President to make regulations for specified Union Territories in accordance with the Constitution.
---
### Q783. Which Article deals with High Courts for Union Territories?
A) Article 240
B) Article 241
C) Article 242
D) Article 243
**Answer:** **B) Article 241**
**Explanation:** Article 241 provides for High Courts for Union Territories or extends the jurisdiction of existing High Courts.
---
### Q784. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Constitutional Amendments?
A) Part XIX
B) Part XX
C) Part XXI
D) Part XXII
**Answer:** **B) Part XX**
**Explanation:** Part XX contains **Article 368**, which lays down the procedure for amending the Constitution.
---
### Q785. Which Article provides the procedure for amendment of the Constitution?
A) Article 367
B) Article 368
C) Article 369
D) Article 370
**Answer:** **B) Article 368**
**Explanation:** Article 368 specifies the power of Parliament and the procedure for constitutional amendments.
---
### Q786. The Constitution may generally be amended by:
A) The President alone
B) Parliament following the procedure prescribed in Article 368
C) The Supreme Court
D) State Legislatures acting independently
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Constitutional amendments require Parliament to follow the procedure prescribed in Article 368. Certain amendments also require ratification by at least one-half of the State Legislatures.
---
### Q787. Which of the following amendments requires ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures?
A) Amendment affecting the election of the President
B) Amendment affecting the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States
C) Amendment affecting the representation of States in Parliament
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** Amendments affecting specified federal provisions require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
---
### Q788. Which landmark judgment propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine?
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
**Answer:** **B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala**
**Explanation:** In **1973**, the Supreme Court held that Parliament's power to amend the Constitution does not extend to altering its Basic Structure.
---
### Q789. According to the Basic Structure Doctrine:
A) Parliament cannot amend the Constitution.
B) Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot destroy or damage its Basic Structure.
C) Only the Supreme Court can amend the Constitution.
D) Constitutional Amendments require a referendum.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Basic Structure Doctrine preserves the essential features of the Constitution while allowing constitutional evolution through amendments.
---
### Q790. Which Schedule allocates seats in the Rajya Sabha?
A) Third Schedule
B) Fourth Schedule
C) Fifth Schedule
D) Sixth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Fourth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Fourth Schedule allocates seats in the Rajya Sabha among the States and Union Territories.
---
### Q791. Which Schedule contains forms of oaths and affirmations?
A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Third Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Third Schedule contains the forms of oaths and affirmations for constitutional office holders.
---
### Q792. Which Schedule contains provisions regarding salaries and allowances of constitutional authorities?
A) First Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Third Schedule
D) Fourth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Second Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Second Schedule provides for the emoluments of constitutional authorities such as the President, Governors, Judges, and others.
---
### Q793. Which Schedule contains the names of States and Union Territories?
A) First Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Third Schedule
D) Seventh Schedule
**Answer:** **A) First Schedule**
**Explanation:** The First Schedule specifies the names of the States and Union Territories and their territorial extent.
---
### Q794. Which Schedule contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List?
A) Sixth Schedule
B) Seventh Schedule
C) Eighth Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Seventh Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States.
---
### Q795. Which Schedule contains the recognized languages of India?
A) Seventh Schedule
B) Eighth Schedule
C) Ninth Schedule
D) Tenth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Eighth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Eighth Schedule presently recognizes **22 languages**.
---
### Q796. Which Schedule was originally intended to protect certain laws from judicial review, subject to constitutional interpretation?
A) Eighth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Tenth Schedule
D) Eleventh Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Ninth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Ninth Schedule was inserted by the **First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951**. Judicial decisions have clarified that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule remain subject to review on certain constitutional grounds, including the Basic Structure Doctrine.
---
### Q797. Which Schedule contains the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Tenth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule was inserted by the **52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985**.
---
### Q798. Which Schedule contains subjects relating to Panchayats?
A) Tenth Schedule
B) Eleventh Schedule
C) Twelfth Schedule
D) Seventh Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Eleventh Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Eleventh Schedule contains **29 subjects** that may be devolved to Panchayats.
---
### Q799. Which Schedule contains subjects relating to Municipalities?
A) Tenth Schedule
B) Eleventh Schedule
C) Twelfth Schedule
D) Sixth Schedule
**Answer:** **C) Twelfth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Twelfth Schedule contains **18 subjects** relating to urban local bodies.
---
### Q800. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional framework relating to Union Territories, Constitutional Amendments, and the Schedules?
A) Union Territories are governed exactly like States in every respect.
B) Constitutional Amendments may alter any feature of the Constitution without limitation.
C) The Constitution provides flexible arrangements for Union Territories, establishes a structured amendment process subject to the Basic Structure Doctrine, and uses the Schedules to organize important constitutional subjects such as territories, legislative powers, languages, tribal administration, local government, and anti-defection provisions.
D) The Schedules have no constitutional significance.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution combines **institutional flexibility**, **federal balance**, and **constitutional continuity**. Union Territories are administered through special constitutional arrangements, amendments are governed by **Article 368** and the **Basic Structure Doctrine**, and the **Twelve Schedules** organize essential constitutional subjects, making them integral to the functioning of India's constitutional system.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 9 – Part 1 (Questions 801–825)**
**Topic:** Landmark Supreme Court Judgments & Basic Structure Doctrine
---
### Q801. Which landmark judgment propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine?
A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** In *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala* (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament's power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 does not extend to altering or destroying its Basic Structure.
---
### Q802. The Basic Structure Doctrine places a limitation on the:
A) Executive power of the President
B) Judicial review by High Courts
C) Amending power of Parliament under Article 368
D) Legislative power of State Legislatures only
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Parliament has wide amending powers, but it cannot alter the Constitution's essential features.
---
### Q803. Which judgment first held that Parliament could amend Fundamental Rights?
A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** *Shankari Prasad* upheld Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights through a constitutional amendment.
---
### Q804. Which case held that Parliament could **not** amend Fundamental Rights?
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D) Waman Rao v. Union of India
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** *Golaknath* held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights. This position was later modified by *Kesavananda Bharati*.
---
### Q805. Which judgment reconciled Parliament's amending power with the Basic Structure Doctrine?
A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
D) Berubari Union Reference
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Court held that Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution, provided the amendment does not damage its Basic Structure.
---
### Q806. Which judgment held that judicial review is part of the Basic Structure?
A) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
B) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
C) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
D) State of Bombay v. Balsara
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** *Minerva Mills* reaffirmed that judicial review and the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are part of the Basic Structure.
---
### Q807. Which case is associated with the "Golden Triangle" of Articles 14, 19, and 21?
A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** *Maneka Gandhi* greatly expanded the interpretation of Article 21 by linking it with Articles 14 and 19.
---
### Q808. Which judgment transformed the interpretation of "procedure established by law" under Article 21?
A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
D) Berubari Union Reference
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Court held that the procedure must be just, fair, and reasonable, significantly broadening Article 21.
---
### Q809. Which case is regarded as a landmark decision on Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
A) S. P. Gupta v. Union of India
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** *S. P. Gupta* liberalized the rules of locus standi and helped expand Public Interest Litigation.
---
### Q810. Which judgment reaffirmed that federalism is part of the Basic Structure?
A) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C) State of West Bengal v. Union of India
D) Berubari Union Reference
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** *S. R. Bommai* emphasized federalism and judicial review in relation to Article 356.
---
### Q811. Which case established that proclamations under Article 356 are subject to judicial review?
A) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D) Keshav Singh Reference
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Court ruled that the exercise of power under Article 356 is not beyond judicial scrutiny.
---
### Q812. Which case upheld judicial review over decisions of tribunals?
A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
B) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Court held that judicial review by High Courts and the Supreme Court forms part of the Basic Structure.
---
### Q813. Which judgment upheld the constitutional validity of the Anti-Defection Law while permitting judicial review?
A) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D) Waman Rao v. Union of India
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Court upheld the Tenth Schedule but allowed judicial review of the Speaker's decisions.
---
### Q814. Which case held that laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after **24 April 1973** are subject to Basic Structure review?
A) Waman Rao v. Union of India
B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Court used the date of the *Kesavananda Bharati* judgment as the constitutional cut-off.
---
### Q815. Which judgment reaffirmed that Ninth Schedule laws are subject to Basic Structure review?
A) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
B) Berubari Union Reference
C) State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
D) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** *I.R. Coelho* confirmed that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 remain open to Basic Structure scrutiny.
---
### Q816. Which constitutional principle prevents arbitrary exercise of governmental power?
A) Rule of Law
B) Collective Responsibility
C) Cabinet Secrecy
D) Parliamentary Privilege
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Rule of Law requires that all public authorities act within the limits of law and the Constitution.
---
### Q817. Which of the following has been recognized as part of the Basic Structure?
A) Judicial Review
B) Federalism
C) Rule of Law
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court has identified several features, including judicial review, federalism, democracy, secularism, and the Rule of Law, as elements of the Basic Structure.
---
### Q818. Which case is most closely associated with expanding the scope of Article 21?
A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
C) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
D) Berubari Union Reference
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** *Maneka Gandhi* transformed Article 21 into a broad guarantee of fair, just, and reasonable procedure.
---
### Q819. Which judgment is popularly known as the "Judges Case" associated with judicial independence and appointments?
A) Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India
B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
D) Waman Rao v. Union of India
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The Second Judges Case recognized the primacy of the judiciary in judicial appointments under the collegium system.
---
### Q820. Which constitutional doctrine ensures that no organ of the State has unlimited power?
A) Doctrine of Pleasure
B) Basic Structure Doctrine
C) Colourable Legislation
D) Pith and Substance
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Basic Structure Doctrine acts as a constitutional limitation on Parliament's amending power.
---
### Q821. The doctrine of judicial review is primarily exercised by:
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court and High Courts
C) Election Commission
D) Finance Commission
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Articles 32, 131–136, 141–142, and 226 collectively empower constitutional courts to exercise judicial review.
---
### Q822. Which case marked a significant expansion of access to justice through relaxation of locus standi?
A) S. P. Gupta v. Union of India
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The decision helped establish modern Public Interest Litigation in India.
---
### Q823. Which of the following is **NOT** generally recognized as a feature of the Basic Structure?
A) Democracy
B) Secularism
C) Judicial Review
D) Fixed Five-Year Tenure of Every Legislature Without Exception
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** Legislative terms may be altered in constitutionally permitted situations, whereas democracy, secularism, and judicial review have been recognized as Basic Structure features.
---
### Q824. The Basic Structure Doctrine seeks to preserve:
A) Only Fundamental Rights
B) Only Directive Principles
C) The essential identity and core features of the Constitution
D) Only Parliamentary privileges
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** It protects the Constitution's foundational principles while allowing constitutional amendments within those limits.
---
### Q825. Which statement best summarizes the contribution of landmark constitutional judgments to Indian constitutional law?
A) They merely interpret ordinary statutes.
B) They have shaped constitutional principles such as judicial review, the Rule of Law, federalism, fundamental rights, parliamentary democracy, and the Basic Structure Doctrine, thereby influencing the evolution of constitutional governance.
C) They replace constitutional amendments.
D) They eliminate Parliament's legislative authority.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Landmark Supreme Court decisions have played a central role in interpreting the Constitution, defining the limits of constitutional power, protecting individual rights, and preserving the Constitution's essential features. Together, these judgments have significantly influenced the development of Indian constitutional jurisprudence.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 9 – Part 2 (Questions 826–850)**
**Topic:** Constitutional Doctrines (Pith and Substance, Colourable Legislation, Severability, Eclipse, Harmonious Construction, Territorial Nexus, Occupied Field, Ancillary Powers, Incidental Powers & Repugnancy)
---
### Q826. The Doctrine of **Pith and Substance** is primarily used to determine:
A) Whether a law violates Fundamental Rights
B) The true nature and character of legislation for deciding legislative competence
C) Whether a law is retrospective
D) Whether Parliament may amend the Constitution
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The doctrine examines the true object and substance of legislation to determine whether it falls within the legislative competence of the law-making authority.
---
### Q827. The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is mainly applied in disputes concerning:
A) Fundamental Duties
B) Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States
C) Appointment of Judges
D) Emergency provisions
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** It helps resolve conflicts where legislation appears to overlap entries in the Union, State, or Concurrent Lists.
---
### Q828. Under the Doctrine of Pith and Substance, a law is generally valid if:
A) It incidentally encroaches upon another legislature's field but substantially falls within the competence of the enacting legislature
B) It affects another List in any manner
C) It is approved by the Governor
D) It is enacted during a National Emergency
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Incidental encroachment does not invalidate legislation if its true character falls within the legislature's constitutional authority.
---
### Q829. The Doctrine of **Colourable Legislation** is based on the principle that:
A) What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly.
B) Parliament is supreme.
C) Every law is presumed unconstitutional.
D) Courts cannot examine legislative intent.
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The doctrine prevents a legislature from disguising an unconstitutional action as a valid exercise of legislative power.
---
### Q830. The Doctrine of Colourable Legislation primarily examines:
A) The wisdom of legislation
B) Legislative competence rather than legislative motive
C) The popularity of legislation
D) The political consequences of legislation
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Courts generally do not question legislative motives but examine whether the legislature had constitutional authority to enact the law.
---
### Q831. Which doctrine provides that if valid and invalid portions of a law are separable, only the invalid part may be struck down?
A) Eclipse
B) Severability
C) Waiver
D) Estoppel
**Answer:** **B) Severability**
**Explanation:** The Doctrine of Severability preserves the valid portions of legislation if they can operate independently.
---
### Q832. The Doctrine of Severability is most closely associated with:
A) Article 13
B) Article 19
C) Article 32
D) Article 368
**Answer:** **A) Article 13**
**Explanation:** Article 13 renders laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void to the extent of the inconsistency, allowing courts to sever unconstitutional provisions where appropriate.
---
### Q833. Under the Doctrine of Severability:
A) The entire Act always becomes void.
B) Only the unconstitutional portion becomes inoperative if it is separable from the valid portion.
C) Parliament must repeal the law.
D) The President decides validity.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Courts attempt to preserve legislative intent by retaining valid provisions wherever possible.
---
### Q834. The Doctrine of **Eclipse** primarily applies to:
A) Constitutional Amendments
B) Pre-Constitution laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
C) Money Bills
D) Emergency Proclamations
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** A pre-Constitution law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is not completely void but becomes eclipsed and may revive if the constitutional inconsistency disappears.
---
### Q835. The Doctrine of Eclipse means that an inconsistent pre-Constitution law is:
A) Permanently repealed
B) Completely unconstitutional for all purposes
C) Dormant or overshadowed to the extent of inconsistency
D) Automatically amended
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The law remains on the statute book but cannot operate against Fundamental Rights while the inconsistency exists.
---
### Q836. Which doctrine seeks to interpret constitutional provisions so that all provisions operate harmoniously?
A) Waiver
B) Harmonious Construction
C) Estoppel
D) Occupied Field
**Answer:** **B) Harmonious Construction**
**Explanation:** Courts avoid interpretations that create unnecessary conflicts between constitutional provisions.
---
### Q837. The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction requires courts to:
A) Prefer one constitutional provision over all others
B) Read apparently conflicting provisions together to give effect to each as far as possible
C) Ignore Directive Principles
D) Ignore Fundamental Duties
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Constitutional interpretation aims to preserve the effectiveness of every provision wherever reasonably possible.
---
### Q838. The Doctrine of **Territorial Nexus** permits a legislature to enact laws having extra-territorial operation when:
A) Parliament permits it by resolution
B) There exists a sufficient territorial connection between the subject matter and the State
C) The President grants permission
D) The Governor certifies the law
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** A real and substantial territorial connection may justify legislation affecting persons or property outside the State.
---
### Q839. The Doctrine of Territorial Nexus mainly relates to:
A) Legislative competence of States
B) Judicial appointments
C) Emergency provisions
D) Fundamental Duties
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** It enables States to legislate on matters having a sufficient territorial connection with the State.
---
### Q840. The Doctrine of **Occupied Field** generally arises in relation to:
A) Relations between the Judiciary and Executive
B) Concurrent List legislation
C) Emergency powers
D) Appointment of Governors
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** When Parliament legislates comprehensively on a Concurrent List subject, the field may become occupied, affecting inconsistent State legislation subject to constitutional provisions.
---
### Q841. Which constitutional Article primarily governs repugnancy between Parliamentary and State laws on Concurrent List subjects?
A) Article 245
B) Article 246
C) Article 254
D) Article 356
**Answer:** **C) Article 254**
**Explanation:** Article 254 resolves inconsistencies between Union and State laws on matters in the Concurrent List.
---
### Q842. Under Article 254, if a State law is inconsistent with a Parliamentary law on a Concurrent List subject:
A) The State law always prevails.
B) The Parliamentary law generally prevails to the extent of repugnancy, subject to constitutional exceptions.
C) Both laws automatically become void.
D) The Governor decides which law applies.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Parliament's law ordinarily prevails, though a State law reserved for and receiving the President's assent may operate within that State, subject to Parliament's overriding power.
---
### Q843. Which doctrine recognizes that the grant of legislative power includes incidental powers necessary to make that power effective?
A) Colourable Legislation
B) Ancillary (Incidental) Powers
C) Eclipse
D) Waiver
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The legislature may exercise incidental powers reasonably connected with its expressly granted powers.
---
### Q844. The Doctrine of Ancillary Powers helps courts interpret:
A) The scope of legislative competence
B) Judicial salaries
C) Election disputes
D) Fundamental Duties
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Express legislative powers include those reasonably necessary to achieve the legislative purpose.
---
### Q845. Which doctrine prevents courts from unnecessarily invalidating legislation where a constitutional interpretation is reasonably possible?
A) Harmonious Construction
B) Basic Structure
C) Pleasure Doctrine
D) Collective Responsibility
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Courts prefer an interpretation that preserves the validity of legislation whenever consistent with the Constitution.
---
### Q846. Which doctrine is most directly concerned with preserving the valid portions of legislation?
A) Eclipse
B) Severability
C) Territorial Nexus
D) Repugnancy
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Doctrine of Severability allows the constitutional portions of a statute to remain operative.
---
### Q847. The principal purpose of constitutional doctrines such as Pith and Substance and Colourable Legislation is to:
A) Increase judicial legislation
B) Resolve constitutional questions relating to legislative competence and constitutional validity
C) Replace constitutional amendments
D) Reduce Parliamentary debates
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** These doctrines provide interpretative tools that help courts determine constitutional validity and legislative authority.
---
### Q848. Which of the following doctrines primarily protects the federal distribution of legislative powers?
A) Pith and Substance
B) Territorial Nexus
C) Occupied Field
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** Each doctrine plays a role in interpreting and preserving the constitutional allocation of legislative authority between the Union and the States.
---
### Q849. Which statement correctly distinguishes the Doctrine of Eclipse from the Doctrine of Severability?
A) Eclipse concerns dormant operation of inconsistent pre-Constitution laws, whereas Severability concerns separating valid and invalid portions of legislation.
B) Both doctrines have identical purposes.
C) Severability applies only to constitutional amendments.
D) Eclipse applies only to Money Bills.
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Eclipse deals with the temporary inoperability of certain pre-Constitution laws, while Severability preserves constitutional portions of legislation.
---
### Q850. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional role of interpretative doctrines?
A) They replace the written Constitution.
B) They assist constitutional courts in interpreting legislative powers, resolving conflicts, preserving constitutional balance, protecting federalism, and ensuring that legislation conforms to the Constitution.
C) They are binding only on Parliament.
D) They apply only during National Emergencies.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Constitutional doctrines are judicially developed interpretative principles that help courts apply the Constitution consistently. They clarify legislative competence, reconcile overlapping constitutional provisions, preserve valid legislation where possible, maintain the federal distribution of powers, and uphold constitutional supremacy and the Rule of Law.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 9 – Part 3 (Questions 851–875)**
**Topic:** Constitutional Commissions, Committees & Important Constitutional Bodies
---
### Q851. Which Article provides for the constitution of the Finance Commission?
A) Article 278
B) Article 280
C) Article 281
D) Article 282
**Answer:** **B) Article 280**
**Explanation:** Article 280 mandates that the President shall constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every five years or earlier if considered necessary.
---
### Q852. The Finance Commission is constituted by the:
A) Parliament
B) President of India
C) Prime Minister
D) Comptroller and Auditor General
**Answer:** **B) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President appoints the Chairman and other members of the Finance Commission.
---
### Q853. The primary constitutional function of the Finance Commission is to:
A) Conduct elections
B) Recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States
C) Audit government accounts
D) Recruit civil servants
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of taxes between the Union and the States (vertical devolution) and among the States (horizontal devolution), along with other financial matters referred to it by the President.
---
### Q854. Which Article requires the President to lay the Finance Commission's recommendations before Parliament?
A) Article 280
B) Article 281
C) Article 282
D) Article 283
**Answer:** **B) Article 281**
**Explanation:** Along with the recommendations, an explanatory memorandum regarding the action taken must also be laid before Parliament.
---
### Q855. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are:
A) Judicial orders
B) Constitutionally important but generally advisory in nature
C) Automatically enforceable as law
D) Binding on the Supreme Court
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** While highly influential, the recommendations require acceptance and implementation by the Union Government through the appropriate constitutional and statutory processes.
---
### Q856. Which constitutional body conducts elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President?
A) Finance Commission
B) Election Commission of India
C) Union Public Service Commission
D) National Human Rights Commission
**Answer:** **B) Election Commission of India**
**Explanation:** The Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority established under Article 324.
---
### Q857. Which Article provides for the Election Commission of India?
A) Article 280
B) Article 324
C) Article 338
D) Article 340
**Answer:** **B) Article 324**
**Explanation:** Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India.
---
### Q858. Which Article provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
A) Article 337
B) Article 338
C) Article 338A
D) Article 339
**Answer:** **B) Article 338**
**Explanation:** Article 338 establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC).
---
### Q859. Which Article establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?
A) Article 338
B) Article 338A
C) Article 339
D) Article 340
**Answer:** **B) Article 338A**
**Explanation:** The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was created by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
---
### Q860. Which constitutional body investigates safeguards provided for Scheduled Castes?
A) Finance Commission
B) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
C) Union Public Service Commission
D) Election Commission
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The NCSC monitors constitutional and legal safeguards, investigates complaints, and advises on the socio-economic development of Scheduled Castes.
---
### Q861. Which constitutional body investigates safeguards provided for Scheduled Tribes?
A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
B) Finance Commission
C) Election Commission
D) Comptroller and Auditor General
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The NCST performs functions relating to the protection and welfare of Scheduled Tribes.
---
### Q862. Which Article empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes?
A) Article 338
B) Article 339
C) Article 340
D) Article 341
**Answer:** **C) Article 340**
**Explanation:** Article 340 provides for the appointment of a commission to examine the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and recommend measures for their advancement.
---
### Q863. The famous Mandal Commission was constituted under:
A) Article 338
B) Article 340
C) Article 342
D) Article 343
**Answer:** **B) Article 340**
**Explanation:** The Mandal Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission) was appointed under Article 340 to identify socially and educationally backward classes.
---
### Q864. Which Article empowers the President to specify Scheduled Castes?
A) Article 340
B) Article 341
C) Article 342
D) Article 343
**Answer:** **B) Article 341**
**Explanation:** The President specifies the Scheduled Castes for each State and Union Territory, subject to parliamentary law.
---
### Q865. Which Article empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes?
A) Article 341
B) Article 342
C) Article 343
D) Article 344
**Answer:** **B) Article 342**
**Explanation:** The President specifies Scheduled Tribes for States and Union Territories in accordance with the Constitution.
---
### Q866. Which of the following is **NOT** a constitutional commission?
A) Finance Commission
B) Election Commission
C) Union Public Service Commission
D) Law Commission of India
**Answer:** **D) Law Commission of India**
**Explanation:** The Law Commission is a statutory/executive body constituted by the Government of India. It is not a constitutional body.
---
### Q867. The Delimitation Commission is primarily responsible for:
A) Auditing government expenditure
B) Delimiting parliamentary and legislative assembly constituencies
C) Conducting elections
D) Appointing Governors
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Delimitation Commission redraws constituency boundaries based on census data as provided by law.
---
### Q868. Which committee is best known for making recommendations regarding Centre-State relations?
A) Mandal Commission
B) Sarkaria Commission
C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
D) Ashok Mehta Committee
**Answer:** **B) Sarkaria Commission**
**Explanation:** The Sarkaria Commission (1983) examined Centre-State relations and made extensive recommendations to strengthen cooperative federalism.
---
### Q869. Which commission reviewed Centre-State relations after the Sarkaria Commission?
A) Punchhi Commission
B) Kothari Commission
C) Nanavati Commission
D) Mandal Commission
**Answer:** **A) Punchhi Commission**
**Explanation:** The Punchhi Commission (2007) revisited Centre-State relations in light of changing constitutional and political developments.
---
### Q870. Which committee is closely associated with the establishment of the Panchayati Raj system?
A) Sarkaria Commission
B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
C) Punchhi Commission
D) Administrative Reforms Commission
**Answer:** **B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee**
**Explanation:** The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended democratic decentralization and a three-tier Panchayati Raj system.
---
### Q871. Which committee recommended strengthening Panchayati Raj through a two-tier structure and greater devolution?
A) Ashok Mehta Committee
B) Sarkaria Commission
C) Punchhi Commission
D) Mandal Commission
**Answer:** **A) Ashok Mehta Committee**
**Explanation:** The Ashok Mehta Committee (1978) recommended reforms to strengthen local self-government institutions.
---
### Q872. Which commission is primarily associated with educational reforms in independent India?
A) Kothari Commission
B) Sarkaria Commission
C) Punchhi Commission
D) Finance Commission
**Answer:** **A) Kothari Commission**
**Explanation:** The Kothari Commission (1964–66) laid the foundation for major educational reforms and influenced the National Policy on Education.
---
### Q873. Which constitutional principle is reflected in the establishment of independent constitutional commissions such as the Election Commission, UPSC, and Finance Commission?
A) Concentration of executive power
B) Institutional independence and constitutional accountability
C) Judicial supremacy over Parliament
D) Cabinet dictatorship
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Independent constitutional bodies help ensure neutrality, accountability, transparency, and fairness in governance.
---
### Q874. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A) Finance Commission — Article 280
B) Election Commission — Article 324
C) National Commission for Scheduled Castes — Article 338
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** All the constitutional bodies listed are correctly matched with their respective Articles.
---
### Q875. Which statement best summarizes the constitutional philosophy behind constitutional commissions and major committees?
A) They function only as advisory groups without constitutional significance.
B) The Constitution establishes several independent bodies to promote financial fairness, free and fair elections, merit-based recruitment, social justice, and constitutional accountability, while expert committees and commissions have significantly influenced constitutional governance and public policy.
C) They exercise judicial powers equal to the Supreme Court.
D) They are controlled entirely by State Governments.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Constitutional commissions such as the **Finance Commission**, **Election Commission**, **UPSC**, **NCSC**, and **NCST** are designed to operate with institutional independence. In addition, expert committees like the **Sarkaria Commission**, **Punchhi Commission**, **Balwant Rai Mehta Committee**, and **Ashok Mehta Committee** have shaped constitutional practice, federal relations, decentralization, and governance reforms. Together, they strengthen democratic institutions, accountability, and the rule of law.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 9 – Part 4 (Questions 876–900)**
**Topic:** Miscellaneous Constitutional Concepts & Advanced Constitution MCQs
---
### Q876. Which of the following best describes the Constitution of India?
A) A completely rigid Constitution
B) A completely flexible Constitution
C) A blend of rigidity and flexibility
D) An unwritten Constitution
**Answer:** **C) A blend of rigidity and flexibility**
**Explanation:** The Indian Constitution combines rigid and flexible features. Some provisions may be amended by a simple majority, others by a special majority of Parliament, and certain federal provisions also require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures under Article 368.
---
### Q877. Which constitutional feature distinguishes India from a confederation?
A) Single Citizenship
B) Independent Judiciary
C) Written Constitution
D) Fundamental Rights
**Answer:** **A) Single Citizenship**
**Explanation:** India follows the principle of single citizenship, unlike many federal systems where dual citizenship exists. This promotes national unity and equality among citizens.
---
### Q878. Which of the following is a feature of the Indian parliamentary system?
A) Separation of the Executive from the Legislature
B) Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers
C) Fixed tenure of the Executive irrespective of legislative confidence
D) Direct election of the Prime Minister
**Answer:** **B) Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers**
**Explanation:** The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, a defining feature of parliamentary democracy.
---
### Q879. Which constitutional principle ensures that every public authority acts according to law?
A) Judicial Activism
B) Rule of Law
C) Cabinet Responsibility
D) Collective Security
**Answer:** **B) Rule of Law**
**Explanation:** The Rule of Law requires that governmental authority be exercised in accordance with the Constitution and laws, not arbitrarily.
---
### Q880. Which constitutional principle ensures that similar cases are treated alike?
A) Equality before Law
B) Preventive Detention
C) Parliamentary Privilege
D) Federal Supremacy
**Answer:** **A) Equality before Law**
**Explanation:** Equality before law under Article 14 requires equal legal protection and prohibits arbitrary discrimination.
---
### Q881. Which feature allows the Constitution to adapt to changing circumstances while preserving its essential identity?
A) Judicial Review together with the Amendment Procedure
B) Preventive Detention
C) Ordinance-making Power
D) Emergency Provisions alone
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Constitutional amendments permit evolution, while judicial review and the Basic Structure Doctrine preserve the Constitution's essential features.
---
### Q882. Which constitutional office is regarded as the nominal executive at the Union level?
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
**Answer:** **B) President**
**Explanation:** Executive power is vested in the President, but it is ordinarily exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
---
### Q883. Which constitutional office is regarded as the real executive at the Union level?
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Vice-President
D) Attorney General
**Answer:** **B) Prime Minister**
**Explanation:** The Prime Minister leads the Council of Ministers and is the real executive authority in the parliamentary system.
---
### Q884. Which of the following best reflects the constitutional principle of cooperative federalism?
A) Absolute independence of the Union and the States
B) Coordination and cooperation between different levels of government
C) Elimination of State Governments
D) Centralization of all legislative powers
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Cooperative federalism encourages collaboration between the Union and the States while respecting the constitutional distribution of powers.
---
### Q885. Which constitutional principle ensures the supremacy of the Constitution over all organs of the State?
A) Constitutional Supremacy
B) Parliamentary Sovereignty
C) Executive Supremacy
D) Cabinet Dictatorship
**Answer:** **A) Constitutional Supremacy**
**Explanation:** Every organ of the State derives its authority from and is bound by the Constitution.
---
### Q886. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of an independent judiciary?
A) Control by the Executive
B) Security of tenure for Judges
C) Annual approval by Parliament
D) Appointment by the Cabinet alone
**Answer:** **B) Security of tenure for Judges**
**Explanation:** Constitutional safeguards such as security of tenure, protected salaries, and a prescribed removal process help ensure judicial independence.
---
### Q887. Which constitutional doctrine prevents excessive concentration of governmental power?
A) Rule of Law
B) Checks and Balances
C) Basic Structure Doctrine
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** The Constitution distributes power among institutions and subjects each to constitutional limitations, promoting accountable governance.
---
### Q888. Which constitutional principle enables courts to invalidate laws inconsistent with the Constitution?
A) Judicial Review
B) Parliamentary Privilege
C) Collective Responsibility
D) Preventive Detention
**Answer:** **A) Judicial Review**
**Explanation:** Judicial review protects constitutional supremacy by ensuring that laws and executive actions conform to the Constitution.
---
### Q889. Which constitutional feature primarily protects individual liberty against arbitrary State action?
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Directive Principles
C) Fundamental Duties
D) Parliamentary Committees
**Answer:** **A) Fundamental Rights**
**Explanation:** Fundamental Rights provide enforceable legal protections against unconstitutional actions by the State.
---
### Q890. Which constitutional principle best explains the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles after later constitutional developments and judicial interpretation?
A) Fundamental Rights always override Directive Principles.
B) Directive Principles always override Fundamental Rights.
C) Both should be harmoniously interpreted to achieve constitutional objectives.
D) They are unrelated constitutional provisions.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court has emphasized harmonious interpretation so that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles complement one another wherever possible.
---
### Q891. Which institution is known as the guardian and final interpreter of the Constitution?
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court of India
C) Election Commission
D) President of India
**Answer:** **B) Supreme Court of India**
**Explanation:** Through judicial review and constitutional interpretation, the Supreme Court safeguards the Constitution and protects constitutional governance.
---
### Q892. Which constitutional value is reflected in universal adult suffrage?
A) Equality and Political Democracy
B) Judicial Independence
C) Collective Responsibility
D) Emergency Administration
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Universal adult suffrage ensures equal political participation by giving eligible citizens the right to vote without discrimination on specified grounds.
---
### Q893. Which constitutional feature most directly strengthens accountability of the Executive to the Legislature?
A) Judicial Review
B) Collective Responsibility
C) Fundamental Duties
D) Federalism
**Answer:** **B) Collective Responsibility**
**Explanation:** The Council of Ministers remains accountable to the popularly elected House and must retain its confidence.
---
### Q894. Which constitutional principle supports decentralization of governance through Panchayats and Municipalities?
A) Democratic Decentralization
B) Preventive Detention
C) Parliamentary Privilege
D) Doctrine of Pleasure
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments strengthened grassroots democracy through constitutionally recognized local self-government.
---
### Q895. Which of the following constitutional values is expressly reflected in the Preamble?
A) Justice
B) Liberty
C) Equality
D) All of the above
**Answer:** **D) All of the above**
**Explanation:** The Preamble proclaims justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as foundational constitutional values.
---
### Q896. Which constitutional concept emphasizes mutual respect and coordination among constitutional institutions?
A) Constitutional Morality
B) Constitutional Anarchy
C) Executive Supremacy
D) Legislative Dictatorship
**Answer:** **A) Constitutional Morality**
**Explanation:** Constitutional morality refers to adherence to constitutional principles, institutional restraint, democratic values, and respect for the rule of law.
---
### Q897. Which constitutional principle requires every public authority to act within the limits of powers granted by the Constitution?
A) Limited Government
B) Absolute Sovereignty of Parliament
C) Executive Supremacy
D) Unlimited Legislative Competence
**Answer:** **A) Limited Government**
**Explanation:** The Constitution creates a government of limited powers, ensuring that every authority functions within constitutional boundaries.
---
### Q898. Which constitutional objective is promoted through independent constitutional institutions such as the Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, and Finance Commission?
A) Transparency and Accountability
B) Concentration of Executive Power
C) Political Centralization
D) Elimination of Judicial Review
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** These constitutional bodies promote impartial administration, accountability, merit-based recruitment, free elections, and sound financial governance.
---
### Q899. Which of the following best reflects the constitutional vision of India?
A) Absolute Parliamentary Sovereignty
B) Constitutional Democracy governed by the Rule of Law
C) Presidential Autocracy
D) Unitary Government without Federal Features
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** India is a constitutional democracy in which governmental powers are exercised subject to the Constitution, judicial review, and democratic accountability.
---
### Q900. Which statement best summarizes the philosophy of the Constitution of India?
A) The Constitution merely establishes governmental institutions.
B) The Constitution creates a democratic republic founded on justice, liberty, equality, fraternity, constitutional supremacy, federalism, judicial review, the rule of law, and protection of individual rights while enabling social transformation through democratic governance.
C) The Constitution is concerned only with the distribution of legislative powers.
D) The Constitution grants unlimited authority to Parliament.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution of India is both a legal framework and a transformative document. It establishes democratic institutions, distributes powers, protects individual rights, promotes social and economic justice, recognizes India's diversity, and provides mechanisms for peaceful constitutional change while preserving its Basic Structure. Through institutions, principles, and constitutional values, it seeks to secure good governance, national unity, and the dignity of every individual.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 10 – Part 1 (Questions 901–925)**
**Topic:** Comprehensive Mixed Mock Test – I (UPSC/SSC/State PCS Pattern)
---
### Q901. The Constitution of India came into force on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 November 1949
C) 26 January 1950
D) 24 January 1950
**Answer:** **C) 26 January 1950**
**Explanation:** Although adopted on **26 November 1949**, the Constitution came into force on **26 January 1950**, a date chosen to commemorate the declaration of Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) in 1930.
---
### Q902. Which of the following is **NOT** included in the Preamble?
A) Justice
B) Liberty
C) Equality
D) Economic Federalism
**Answer:** **D) Economic Federalism**
**Explanation:** The Preamble declares **Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity**, but does not expressly mention "Economic Federalism."
---
### Q903. Which constitutional office is elected by an Electoral College consisting of elected Members of Parliament and elected Members of State Legislative Assemblies?
A) Vice-President
B) President
C) Prime Minister
D) Governor
**Answer:** **B) President**
**Explanation:** The President is elected by an Electoral College comprising elected MPs and elected MLAs of the States and certain Union Territories, in accordance with Articles 54 and 55.
---
### Q904. Which writ is issued to compel a public authority to perform a public duty?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Mandamus
C) Prohibition
D) Certiorari
**Answer:** **B) Mandamus**
**Explanation:** A writ of Mandamus directs a public authority to perform a duty imposed by law.
---
### Q905. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the:
A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
B) 44th Constitutional Amendment
C) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
D) 86th Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976**
**Explanation:** Part IVA containing Fundamental Duties was inserted by the 42nd Amendment during the Emergency.
---
### Q906. Which Article provides constitutional remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 32
D) Article 226
**Answer:** **C) Article 32**
**Explanation:** Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and has been described as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution.
---
### Q907. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part IVA
D) Part V
**Answer:** **B) Part IV**
**Explanation:** Articles 36–51 contain the Directive Principles of State Policy.
---
### Q908. Which one of the following is a constitutional body?
A) Law Commission of India
B) NITI Aayog
C) Election Commission of India
D) Central Vigilance Commission
**Answer:** **C) Election Commission of India**
**Explanation:** The Election Commission is established under Article 324. The others are statutory or executive bodies.
---
### Q909. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
**Answer:** **B) Tenth Schedule**
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule was inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
---
### Q910. Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 61st Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
**Answer:** **C) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988**
**Explanation:** The amendment reduced the voting age for elections from 21 to 18 years.
---
### Q911. Which of the following is **NOT** a Fundamental Right?
A) Right to Equality
B) Right against Exploitation
C) Right to Property
D) Right to Freedom of Religion
**Answer:** **C) Right to Property**
**Explanation:** The Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right after the 44th Constitutional Amendment and is now a constitutional legal right under Article 300A.
---
### Q912. Which House of Parliament can never be dissolved?
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Both Houses
D) Either House
**Answer:** **B) Rajya Sabha**
**Explanation:** The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House with one-third of its members retiring every two years.
---
### Q913. Which constitutional authority administers the oath to the President of India?
A) Prime Minister
B) Chief Justice of India
C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D) Vice-President
**Answer:** **B) Chief Justice of India**
**Explanation:** The Chief Justice of India administers the oath of office to the President.
---
### Q914. Money Bills can be introduced only in the:
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Either House
C) Lok Sabha
D) Joint Sitting
**Answer:** **C) Lok Sabha**
**Explanation:** Article 109 read with Article 110 provides that Money Bills can originate only in the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q915. Which constitutional amendment inserted the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" into the Preamble?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
**Answer:** **A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976**
**Explanation:** The amendment added these words to further emphasize the constitutional vision.
---
### Q916. Which institution acts as the guardian of the Constitution?
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court of India
C) President
D) Election Commission
**Answer:** **B) Supreme Court of India**
**Explanation:** Through judicial review and constitutional interpretation, the Supreme Court protects constitutional supremacy.
---
### Q917. Which Fundamental Right is available only to citizens?
A) Equality before Law
B) Protection in respect of Conviction for Offences
C) Freedom of Speech and Expression
D) Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
**Answer:** **C) Freedom of Speech and Expression**
**Explanation:** Article 19 rights are available only to citizens, whereas several other Fundamental Rights are available to all persons.
---
### Q918. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution?
A) Article 356
B) Article 368
C) Article 370
D) Article 372
**Answer:** **B) Article 368**
**Explanation:** Article 368 lays down the procedure for constitutional amendments.
---
### Q919. Which constitutional body audits the accounts of the Union and the States?
A) Finance Commission
B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
C) UPSC
D) NITI Aayog
**Answer:** **B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India**
**Explanation:** The CAG audits public accounts to ensure financial accountability.
---
### Q920. Which constitutional doctrine prevents Parliament from destroying the essential identity of the Constitution?
A) Doctrine of Eclipse
B) Doctrine of Severability
C) Basic Structure Doctrine
D) Doctrine of Waiver
**Answer:** **C) Basic Structure Doctrine**
**Explanation:** Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot damage or destroy its Basic Structure.
---
### Q921. Which constitutional body recommends the distribution of taxes between the Union and the States?
A) Finance Commission
B) Planning Commission
C) GST Council
D) UPSC
**Answer:** **A) Finance Commission**
**Explanation:** The Finance Commission is established under Article 280 to recommend financial devolution.
---
### Q922. Which constitutional office is the highest law officer of the Union Government?
A) Solicitor General
B) Attorney General for India
C) Advocate General
D) Law Secretary
**Answer:** **B) Attorney General for India**
**Explanation:** The Attorney General advises the Union Government on legal matters under Article 76.
---
### Q923. Which constitutional body conducts elections to Panchayats?
A) Election Commission of India
B) State Election Commission
C) District Collector
D) Governor
**Answer:** **B) State Election Commission**
**Explanation:** Article 243K vests the superintendence, direction, and control of Panchayat elections in the State Election Commission.
---
### Q924. Which constitutional value best explains reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
A) Formal Equality alone
B) Social Justice
C) Absolute Equality
D) Separation of Powers
**Answer:** **B) Social Justice**
**Explanation:** Reservation seeks to promote substantive equality by addressing historical disadvantage and ensuring adequate representation.
---
### Q925. Which statement most accurately reflects the constitutional philosophy of India?
A) The Constitution establishes unlimited parliamentary sovereignty.
B) The Constitution combines democracy, federalism, rule of law, judicial review, separation of powers, social justice, and constitutional supremacy within a parliamentary framework.
C) India follows a purely unitary form of government.
D) The Constitution gives unlimited authority to the Executive.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution creates a balanced constitutional democracy with limited government, protection of rights, federal distribution of powers, independent institutions, and mechanisms for peaceful constitutional change. It harmonizes liberty with social justice and democratic accountability, making it one of the world's most comprehensive constitutional frameworks.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 10 – Part 2 (Questions 926–950)**
**Topic:** Mixed Mock Test – II (Advanced UPSC, SSC CGL, State PCS, Judiciary, CDS & CAPF Pattern)
---
### Q926. Which one of the following constitutional offices is **not** required to take an oath under the Third Schedule?
A) President of India
B) Governor of a State
C) Attorney General for India
D) Judge of the Supreme Court
**Answer:** **C) Attorney General for India**
**Explanation:** The Third Schedule contains forms of oath for constitutional functionaries such as the President, Governors, Ministers, Members of Parliament, Judges, and the Comptroller and Auditor General. The Attorney General is not included in the Third Schedule.
---
### Q927. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing "complete justice" in any cause or matter pending before it?
A) Article 136
B) Article 141
C) Article 142
D) Article 144
**Answer:** **C) Article 142**
**Explanation:** Article 142 grants the Supreme Court extraordinary powers to pass orders necessary for doing complete justice, making it a unique constitutional provision.
---
### Q928. Under Article 141, the law declared by the Supreme Court is:
A) Binding only on High Courts
B) Binding on all courts within the territory of India
C) Binding only on subordinate courts
D) Merely advisory
**Answer:** **B) Binding on all courts within the territory of India**
**Explanation:** Article 141 ensures uniformity in constitutional and legal interpretation by making Supreme Court decisions binding on all courts in India.
---
### Q929. Which constitutional authority has the power to consult the Supreme Court on questions of law or public importance?
A) Prime Minister
B) Parliament
C) President of India
D) Attorney General
**Answer:** **C) President of India**
**Explanation:** Under Article 143, the President may seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance.
---
### Q930. Which of the following proceedings of the Supreme Court are advisory rather than adjudicatory?
A) Writ Jurisdiction
B) Appellate Jurisdiction
C) Advisory Jurisdiction under Article 143
D) Original Jurisdiction under Article 131
**Answer:** **C) Advisory Jurisdiction under Article 143**
**Explanation:** In advisory jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives its opinion to the President. It does not decide disputes between parties.
---
### Q931. Which Article makes it the duty of all civil and judicial authorities in India to act in aid of the Supreme Court?
A) Article 141
B) Article 142
C) Article 143
D) Article 144
**Answer:** **D) Article 144**
**Explanation:** Article 144 strengthens the authority of the Supreme Court by requiring all authorities to act in aid of it.
---
### Q932. Which constitutional provision declares that all authorities, civil and judicial, shall act in aid of the Supreme Court?
A) Article 139
B) Article 141
C) Article 144
D) Article 145
**Answer:** **C) Article 144**
**Explanation:** This provision reinforces the supremacy of the Supreme Court in the judicial hierarchy.
---
### Q933. Rules regarding the practice and procedure of the Supreme Court are made under:
A) Article 145
B) Article 146
C) Article 147
D) Article 148
**Answer:** **A) Article 145**
**Explanation:** Article 145 empowers the Supreme Court to frame rules regulating its practice and procedure, subject to constitutional provisions.
---
### Q934. Which Article deals with officers and servants of the Supreme Court?
A) Article 145
B) Article 146
C) Article 147
D) Article 148
**Answer:** **B) Article 146**
**Explanation:** Article 146 provides for the appointment and service conditions of officers and employees of the Supreme Court.
---
### Q935. Which constitutional office is often described as the "guardian of the public purse"?
A) Finance Commission
B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Union Public Service Commission
**Answer:** **B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India**
**Explanation:** The CAG audits government accounts to ensure accountability in the expenditure of public funds.
---
### Q936. Which of the following is **not** a characteristic of the Indian federal system?
A) Distribution of legislative powers
B) Written Constitution
C) Independent Judiciary
D) Right of States to secede from the Union
**Answer:** **D) Right of States to secede from the Union**
**Explanation:** India is described as a "Union of States." States do not possess a constitutional right to secede.
---
### Q937. Which constitutional feature best distinguishes India from the United Kingdom?
A) Parliamentary Government
B) Bicameral Legislature
C) Written Constitution with Judicial Review
D) Office of Prime Minister
**Answer:** **C) Written Constitution with Judicial Review**
**Explanation:** Unlike the UK, India has a written Constitution that is supreme and subject to judicial interpretation and review.
---
### Q938. Which constitutional principle requires that governmental powers be exercised only within limits prescribed by the Constitution?
A) Cabinet Responsibility
B) Constitutionalism
C) Ordinance Power
D) Parliamentary Privilege
**Answer:** **B) Constitutionalism**
**Explanation:** Constitutionalism emphasizes limited government, accountability, and adherence to constitutional norms.
---
### Q939. The phrase "procedure established by law" in Article 21 was originally inspired by the Constitution of:
A) United States
B) Canada
C) Japan
D) Australia
**Answer:** **C) Japan**
**Explanation:** The framers adopted the phrase from the Japanese Constitution, though later judicial interpretation expanded its meaning significantly.
---
### Q940. Which one of the following constitutional features reflects India's commitment to social transformation?
A) Directive Principles of State Policy
B) Parliamentary Privileges
C) Ordinance-making Power
D) Parliamentary Committees
**Answer:** **A) Directive Principles of State Policy**
**Explanation:** The Directive Principles aim to establish a welfare state by guiding governments toward social and economic justice.
---
### Q941. Which of the following is **not** ordinarily enforceable by courts?
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Constitutional Remedies
C) Directive Principles of State Policy
D) Equality before Law
**Answer:** **C) Directive Principles of State Policy**
**Explanation:** Although fundamental in governance, Directive Principles are non-justiciable under Article 37.
---
### Q942. Which constitutional doctrine emphasizes that the Constitution should be interpreted as an integrated whole?
A) Doctrine of Eclipse
B) Harmonious Construction
C) Colourable Legislation
D) Waiver
**Answer:** **B) Harmonious Construction**
**Explanation:** Courts interpret constitutional provisions so that each provision has meaningful effect without creating unnecessary conflicts.
---
### Q943. Which Article provides immunity to the President from criminal proceedings during the term of office?
A) Article 359
B) Article 361
C) Article 368
D) Article 370
**Answer:** **B) Article 361**
**Explanation:** Article 361 grants certain constitutional immunities to the President and Governors while they hold office.
---
### Q944. Which constitutional office enjoys similar protections under Article 361 as the President?
A) Chief Justice of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Governor
D) Vice-President
**Answer:** **C) Governor**
**Explanation:** Article 361 extends specified immunities to both the President and Governors during their tenure.
---
### Q945. Which constitutional principle best explains why every authority in India is subject to constitutional limitations?
A) Constitutional Supremacy
B) Parliamentary Sovereignty
C) Executive Supremacy
D) Cabinet Dictatorship
**Answer:** **A) Constitutional Supremacy**
**Explanation:** The Constitution is the supreme law, and every institution derives its authority from it.
---
### Q946. Which constitutional value is most directly reflected in free and fair elections?
A) Political Democracy
B) Judicial Activism
C) Preventive Detention
D) Emergency Administration
**Answer:** **A) Political Democracy**
**Explanation:** Free and fair elections ensure representative government and democratic legitimacy.
---
### Q947. Which constitutional institution plays the primary role in preserving the independence of judicial interpretation?
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court
C) Finance Commission
D) Election Commission
**Answer:** **B) Supreme Court**
**Explanation:** As the apex constitutional court, the Supreme Court safeguards constitutional interpretation and judicial independence.
---
### Q948. Which constitutional concept best describes the relationship between liberty and reasonable restrictions under Article 19?
A) Absolute Freedom
B) Balanced Constitutional Freedom
C) Parliamentary Supremacy
D) Executive Control
**Answer:** **B) Balanced Constitutional Freedom**
**Explanation:** Article 19 guarantees important freedoms while permitting reasonable restrictions in the interests specified by the Constitution.
---
### Q949. Which of the following best reflects India's constitutional philosophy regarding diversity?
A) Uniformity in every sphere
B) Unity through Constitutional Pluralism
C) Complete State Autonomy
D) Absolute Centralization
**Answer:** **B) Unity through Constitutional Pluralism**
**Explanation:** The Constitution accommodates linguistic, cultural, religious, and regional diversity while maintaining national unity.
---
### Q950. Which statement most accurately summarizes the constitutional design of India?
A) India follows absolute parliamentary sovereignty similar to the United Kingdom.
B) India follows constitutional supremacy through a written Constitution, independent judiciary, parliamentary democracy, federalism with a strong Union, judicial review, and protection of Fundamental Rights while pursuing social justice through constitutional governance.
C) India follows a purely presidential system.
D) India has an unwritten Constitution based solely on conventions.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution of India creates a unique constitutional framework combining parliamentary government, federalism, constitutional supremacy, judicial review, separation of powers, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and independent constitutional institutions. This integrated structure enables democratic governance while preserving constitutional values and promoting social transformation.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 10 – Part 3 (Questions 951–975)**
**Topic:** Assertion–Reason, Match the Following & Statement-Based MCQs (UPSC / Judiciary / State PCS Pattern)
---
## Assertion–Reason Questions (951–960)
**Directions (Q951–960):**
Choose the correct answer using the following code:
**A)** Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
**B)** Both A and R are true, but R is **not** the correct explanation of A.
**C)** A is true, but R is false.
**D)** A is false, but R is true.
---
### Q951.
**Assertion (A):** India is described as a "Union of States."
**Reason (R):** States do not possess a constitutional right to secede from the Union.
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Article 1 declares India to be a Union of States. The constitutional structure emphasizes the indestructibility of the Union while permitting reorganization of States through constitutional procedures.
---
### Q952.
**Assertion (A):** The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary.
**Reason (R):** Security of tenure and prescribed removal procedures help ensure judicial independence.
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Constitutional safeguards relating to appointment, tenure, salaries, and removal protect judicial independence.
---
### Q953.
**Assertion (A):** Fundamental Rights are enforceable by courts.
**Reason (R):** Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies.
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Article 32 guarantees access to the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
---
### Q954.
**Assertion (A):** Directive Principles are enforceable by courts.
**Reason (R):** They are fundamental in the governance of the country.
**Answer:** **D**
**Explanation:** Directive Principles are fundamental in governance (Article 37) but are expressly made **non-justiciable**.
---
### Q955.
**Assertion (A):** The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
**Reason (R):** One-third of its members retire every two years.
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** The system of rotational retirement ensures continuity, preventing dissolution of the Rajya Sabha.
---
### Q956.
**Assertion (A):** The President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
**Reason (R):** India follows the parliamentary form of government.
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Parliamentary democracy requires the nominal executive to ordinarily act on ministerial advice.
---
### Q957.
**Assertion (A):** Judicial Review forms part of the Basic Structure.
**Reason (R):** Parliament possesses unlimited amending power.
**Answer:** **C**
**Explanation:** Judicial Review is part of the Basic Structure, but Parliament's amending power is constitutionally limited by the Basic Structure Doctrine.
---
### Q958.
**Assertion (A):** Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
**Reason (R):** The Lok Sabha is the directly elected House representing the people.
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Financial supremacy is constitutionally vested in the directly elected House.
---
### Q959.
**Assertion (A):** India has a federal Constitution.
**Reason (R):** Legislative powers are distributed between the Union and the States through the Seventh Schedule.
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** The constitutional distribution of powers is one of the defining features of Indian federalism.
---
### Q960.
**Assertion (A):** The Constitution promotes democratic decentralization.
**Reason (R):** The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provided constitutional status to Panchayats and Municipalities.
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** These amendments strengthened local self-government and grassroots democracy.
---
# Statement-Based Questions (961–970)
**Directions:** Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
---
### Q961.
1. The Preamble is part of the Constitution.
2. The Preamble can be amended under Article 368, subject to the Basic Structure Doctrine.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
**Answer:** **C**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court has recognized the Preamble as part of the Constitution, and it may be amended provided the Basic Structure is not altered.
---
### Q962.
1. Every Money Bill is a Financial Bill.
2. Every Financial Bill is a Money Bill.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Every Money Bill is a type of Financial Bill, but not every Financial Bill satisfies the constitutional definition of a Money Bill.
---
### Q963.
1. The Election Commission is a constitutional body.
2. The State Election Commission conducts elections to Parliament.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** The Election Commission of India conducts Parliamentary elections, while the State Election Commission conducts elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.
---
### Q964.
1. Fundamental Duties are enforceable by courts.
2. Parliament may enact laws to give effect to certain Fundamental Duties.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **B**
**Explanation:** Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, but Parliament may legislate on matters connected with them.
---
### Q965.
1. The Governor is the constitutional head of a State.
2. The Chief Minister is the real executive head.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **C**
**Explanation:** This reflects the parliamentary executive established under Part VI of the Constitution.
---
### Q966.
1. Judicial Review is expressly mentioned in one specific Article of the Constitution.
2. Judicial Review has been recognized as part of the Basic Structure.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **B**
**Explanation:** Judicial Review flows from multiple constitutional provisions and has been recognized judicially as part of the Basic Structure.
---
### Q967.
1. India follows a single citizenship.
2. The Constitution permits dual citizenship.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** The Constitution provides for single citizenship for all Indian citizens.
---
### Q968.
1. The Finance Commission is constituted every five years or earlier if necessary.
2. The Finance Commission is a statutory body.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280.
---
### Q969.
1. The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction.
2. The advisory opinion under Article 143 arises upon a Presidential Reference.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **C**
**Explanation:** Article 143 empowers the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court.
---
### Q970.
1. The Basic Structure Doctrine expressly appears in the Constitution.
2. The Basic Structure Doctrine evolved through judicial interpretation.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither
**Answer:** **B**
**Explanation:** The doctrine is judge-made constitutional law developed through landmark Supreme Court decisions.
---
# Match the Following (971–975)
---
### Q971. Match the Article with the Institution:
| List I | List II |
| -------------- | ---------------------------------- |
| 1. Article 280 | A. Election Commission |
| 2. Article 324 | B. Finance Commission |
| 3. Article 148 | C. Comptroller and Auditor General |
| 4. Article 76 | D. Attorney General |
Options:
A) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
B) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
C) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
D) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Each Article correctly corresponds to the constitutional institution established under it.
---
### Q972. Match the Amendment with the Subject:
| List I | List II |
| ----------------- | ----------------------------------------------------- |
| 1. 42nd Amendment | A. Voting age reduced |
| 2. 44th Amendment | B. Fundamental Duties |
| 3. 52nd Amendment | C. Anti-Defection Law |
| 4. 61st Amendment | D. Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right |
Options:
A) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
B) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
C) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
D) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** These Constitutional Amendments are among the most frequently asked in competitive examinations.
---
### Q973. Match the Schedule with the Subject:
| List I | List II |
| ------------------ | -------------------------- |
| 1. Fifth Schedule | A. Languages |
| 2. Sixth Schedule | B. Tribal Autonomous Areas |
| 3. Eighth Schedule | C. Scheduled Areas |
| 4. Tenth Schedule | D. Anti-Defection |
Options:
A) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
C) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
D) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Each Schedule deals with a distinct constitutional subject.
---
### Q974. Match the Case with the Principle:
| List I | List II |
| ---------------------- | -------------------------------------- |
| 1. Kesavananda Bharati | A. Article 21 Expansion |
| 2. Maneka Gandhi | B. Basic Structure |
| 3. S. R. Bommai | C. Judicial Review of President's Rule |
| 4. Kihoto Hollohan | D. Anti-Defection |
Options:
A) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
B) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
C) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
D) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** These landmark judgments have significantly shaped Indian constitutional law.
---
### Q975. Match the Constitutional Body with its Primary Function:
| List I | List II |
| ---------------------- | ----------------------------- |
| 1. CAG | A. Conduct Elections |
| 2. UPSC | B. Audit Government Accounts |
| 3. Finance Commission | C. Civil Services Recruitment |
| 4. Election Commission | D. Tax Devolution |
Options:
A) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
B) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
C) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
D) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
**Answer:** **A**
**Explanation:** Each constitutional body has a distinct constitutional function that contributes to accountable governance and the constitutional framework.
# Constitution of India – 1000 Original MCQs
## **Volume 10 – Part 4 (Questions 976–1000)**
### **Grand Revision Test (Final High-Difficulty Mock)**
**Pattern:** UPSC Civil Services • Judiciary • State PCS • SSC CGL • CDS • CAPF • Banking
---
### Q976. Which of the following constitutional features has **not** been expressly mentioned by the Supreme Court as part of the Basic Structure?
A) Judicial Review
B) Federalism
C) Rule of Law
D) The exact number of Judges of the Supreme Court
**Answer:** **D) The exact number of Judges of the Supreme Court**
**Explanation:** The Supreme Court has recognized features such as judicial review, constitutional supremacy, democracy, secularism, federalism, separation of powers, and the rule of law as elements of the Basic Structure. The number of judges is determined by law and is not part of the Basic Structure.
---
### Q977. Which of the following best reflects the constitutional relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
A) Fundamental Rights always prevail.
B) Directive Principles always prevail.
C) Both should be harmoniously interpreted to achieve constitutional goals.
D) They are entirely independent of each other.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Constitutional jurisprudence emphasizes harmony between Part III and Part IV so that both contribute to justice, liberty, equality, and welfare.
---
### Q978. Which constitutional authority has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha?
A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B) Prime Minister
C) President of India
D) Chief Justice of India
**Answer:** **C) President of India**
**Explanation:** The President dissolves the Lok Sabha in accordance with constitutional provisions and ordinarily acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
---
### Q979. The expression **"procedure established by law"** after judicial interpretation requires that such procedure must be:
A) Approved by Parliament only
B) Fair, just, and reasonable
C) Approved by every State Legislature
D) Based solely on customary law
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Following the landmark expansion of Article 21, any law depriving a person of life or personal liberty must prescribe a procedure that is fair, just, and reasonable.
---
### Q980. Which constitutional body submits reports relating to the audit of the Union and State accounts to the President or the Governor, as the case may be?
A) Finance Commission
B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
C) Election Commission of India
D) Union Public Service Commission
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Comptroller and Auditor General audits government accounts and submits reports that are placed before the appropriate legislature.
---
### Q981. Which constitutional principle most effectively prevents arbitrary exercise of public power?
A) Parliamentary Privilege
B) Rule of Law
C) Preventive Detention
D) Ordinance-making Power
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Rule of Law ensures that all governmental action remains subject to the Constitution and the law.
---
### Q982. Which of the following is **correctly matched**?
A) Ninth Schedule — Languages
B) Tenth Schedule — Anti-Defection
C) Eleventh Schedule — Municipalities
D) Twelfth Schedule — Union List
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Tenth Schedule contains the Anti-Defection provisions. The Eleventh Schedule relates to Panchayats, the Twelfth Schedule to Municipalities, and the Eighth Schedule to recognized languages.
---
### Q983. The Constitution of India establishes which type of executive?
A) Presidential Executive
B) Parliamentary Executive
C) Military Executive
D) Collective Presidency
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** India follows the parliamentary system in which the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
---
### Q984. Which of the following best explains the concept of constitutional supremacy?
A) Parliament may override the Constitution.
B) The Constitution is the supreme law, and all authorities derive their powers from it.
C) The Executive is supreme over the Judiciary.
D) State Legislatures are superior to Parliament.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Constitutional supremacy is the foundation of the Indian constitutional system.
---
### Q985. Which constitutional office is **not** part of the Union Executive?
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Prime Minister
D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
**Answer:** **D)**
**Explanation:** The Speaker belongs to the Legislature. The Union Executive consists of the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and the Attorney General for India.
---
### Q986. Which constitutional value is most directly promoted through universal adult suffrage?
A) Political Equality
B) Judicial Review
C) Parliamentary Privilege
D) Preventive Detention
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Universal adult suffrage guarantees equal political participation by eligible citizens.
---
### Q987. Which constitutional body advises the President on the distribution of central taxes among the States?
A) GST Council
B) Finance Commission
C) Inter-State Council
D) NITI Aayog
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Finance Commission makes recommendations on tax devolution and grants-in-aid.
---
### Q988. Which constitutional amendment inserted the Tenth Schedule?
A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
B) 44th Constitutional Amendment
C) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
D) 61st Constitutional Amendment
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 introduced the Anti-Defection Law.
---
### Q989. Which constitutional institution is responsible for protecting the Constitution through judicial review?
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court and High Courts
C) Election Commission
D) Finance Commission
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Both the Supreme Court and High Courts exercise judicial review to ensure constitutional governance.
---
### Q990. Which constitutional concept best describes the Indian model of governance?
A) Absolute Parliamentary Sovereignty
B) Constitutional Democracy
C) Direct Democracy
D) Confederation
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** India is a constitutional democracy combining representative government with constitutional limitations on power.
---
### Q991. Which one of the following is **not** a Fundamental Duty?
A) To develop scientific temper
B) To safeguard public property
C) To vote in every election
D) To protect the natural environment
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Voting is an important democratic responsibility, but it is **not** listed as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A.
---
### Q992. Which constitutional mechanism ensures financial accountability of the Executive to the Legislature?
A) Judicial Review
B) Parliamentary Control over Public Finance
C) Preventive Detention
D) Basic Structure Doctrine
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Budget approval, appropriation, audit by the CAG, and legislative committees ensure accountability in public expenditure.
---
### Q993. Which constitutional principle most directly supports the independence of constitutional authorities such as the Election Commission and the Comptroller and Auditor General?
A) Institutional Independence
B) Parliamentary Sovereignty
C) Executive Supremacy
D) Cabinet Responsibility
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Constitutional safeguards relating to appointment, tenure, removal, and functioning promote impartiality and independence.
---
### Q994. Which constitutional feature best promotes grassroots democracy?
A) Judicial Review
B) Panchayats and Municipalities
C) Emergency Provisions
D) Ordinance-making Power
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments constitutionalized local self-government.
---
### Q995. Which constitutional institution is often described as the "sentinel on the qui vive" for Fundamental Rights?
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court
C) Election Commission
D) Finance Commission
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Through judicial review and the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court acts as the vigilant protector of constitutional liberties.
---
### Q996. Which constitutional value most directly underlies reservation policies for disadvantaged communities?
A) Formal Equality Alone
B) Social Justice and Substantive Equality
C) Absolute Uniformity
D) Parliamentary Privilege
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** Reservation aims to achieve substantive equality by addressing historical and structural disadvantages.
---
### Q997. Which statement correctly reflects the nature of the Indian Constitution?
A) It is entirely rigid.
B) It is entirely flexible.
C) It combines rigidity with flexibility.
D) It is based solely on constitutional conventions.
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** Different constitutional provisions require different amendment procedures, making the Constitution both rigid and flexible.
---
### Q998. Which constitutional institution is primarily responsible for ensuring merit-based recruitment to the Union civil services?
A) Election Commission
B) Finance Commission
C) Union Public Service Commission
D) National Human Rights Commission
**Answer:** **C)**
**Explanation:** The UPSC conducts examinations and advises on recruitment to Union services.
---
### Q999. Which constitutional principle best explains why no organ of government can exercise unlimited authority?
A) Constitutionalism
B) Parliamentary Sovereignty
C) Executive Supremacy
D) Legislative Omnipotence
**Answer:** **A)**
**Explanation:** Constitutionalism requires that every public authority act within constitutional limits and remain accountable under the rule of law.
---
### Q1000. Which statement best captures the enduring constitutional vision of India?
A) The Constitution merely creates governmental institutions and distributes powers.
B) The Constitution establishes a constitutional democracy founded upon justice, liberty, equality, fraternity, constitutional supremacy, the rule of law, judicial review, federalism, secularism, democratic accountability, and the protection of human dignity while providing peaceful mechanisms for constitutional evolution through the amendment process.
C) The Constitution grants unlimited authority to Parliament.
D) The Constitution is concerned only with Fundamental Rights.
**Answer:** **B)**
**Explanation:** The Constitution of India is a transformative charter. It not only creates institutions of government but also articulates the nation's constitutional values and aspirations. Through the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, Fundamental Duties, an independent judiciary, federalism, democratic governance, and constitutional accountability, it seeks to secure justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for all while preserving the unity and integrity of India. The amendment process allows constitutional evolution, but the Basic Structure Doctrine ensures that the Constitution's essential identity remains intact.